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A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
- B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
- C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
- D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct:
1. Tis refers to carcinoma in situ, meaning the cancer is limited to the surface layer of cells in the cervix.
2. N0 indicates no regional lymph node involvement.
3. M0 indicates no distant metastasis.
4. Therefore, the cancer is localized only to the cervix, making answer A correct.
Summary:
B: Incorrect - Does not address the staging information provided in Tis, N0, M0.
C: Incorrect - The staging information is already provided, and further testing may not be necessary at this stage.
D: Incorrect - Staging information does not indicate difficulty in determining the original site of the cancer.
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What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?
- A. Preventing infection
- B. Controlling bleeding
- C. Reducing portal hypertension
- D. Maintaining nutritional status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. This is because esophageal varices can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage. By controlling bleeding, we can prevent severe complications and potentially save the client's life. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal and may help prevent variceal bleeding in the future, but it is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the primary goal when managing acute bleeding from esophageal varices.
A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Take an extra dose if you miss one.
- B. Avoid high-potassium foods.
- C. Report any visual disturbances.
- D. Stop taking the medication if your pulse is normal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report any visual disturbances. This is important because digoxin can cause visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow-tinted vision, which may indicate toxicity. By reporting these symptoms promptly, the nurse can prevent serious complications.
A: Taking an extra dose if a dose is missed can lead to overdose and toxicity.
B: Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin.
D: Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect as it should be taken as prescribed for heart failure management.
A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated with intravenous morphine. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to this patient?
- A. To reduce pain.
- B. To decrease anxiety.
- C. To reduce cardiac workload.
- D. To increase respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary reason for administering morphine to a patient with MI is to reduce cardiac workload. Morphine acts as a vasodilator and decreases preload and afterload on the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen demand. This helps to improve coronary blood flow and decrease the workload on the heart muscle, which is crucial in the setting of an MI.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While morphine can help reduce pain in MI, the primary reason for administering it is to reduce cardiac workload.
B: Morphine may have a calming effect, but the primary goal is to reduce cardiac workload.
D: Morphine can actually decrease respiratory rate as a side effect, making this choice incorrect.
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
- B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer regular insulin intravenously. In DKA, the priority is to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis. Regular insulin intravenously is the fastest way to reduce blood glucose levels. Oral hypoglycemic agents (B) are not effective in DKA. Sodium bicarbonate (C) is not routinely recommended in DKA as it may worsen acidosis. Providing a high-calorie diet (D) is not appropriate as the focus should be on treating the underlying condition first.
In a client with liver cirrhosis experiencing confusion and disorientation, what condition is most likely causing these symptoms?
- A. Hepatic encephalopathy
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Electrolyte imbalance
- D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatic encephalopathy. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. This excess ammonia crosses the blood-brain barrier, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and disorientation. Hypoglycemia (B), electrolyte imbalance (C), and dehydration (D) can also contribute to altered mental status, but in a cirrhotic patient, hepatic encephalopathy is the most likely cause due to impaired ammonia metabolism.