Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
- A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
- B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
- C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
- D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping warfarin one week before surgery reduces the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect can persist for several days, so stopping it earlier allows time for its effects to diminish. Choice A is incorrect because continuing warfarin until the day of surgery increases bleeding risk. Choice B is incorrect as stopping warfarin only three days before surgery may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is not a suitable substitute for warfarin in most cases.
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What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test all stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and infection due to the potential side effect of radiation-induced diarrhea. By maintaining good hygiene in the perianal area, the patient can reduce the risk of complications such as skin irritation and infection.
Choice A is incorrect because testing stools for the presence of blood is not directly related to preventing complications from external-beam radiation.
Choice B is incorrect because while a high-residue, high-fiber diet may be beneficial for some cancer patients, it is not specifically recommended to prevent complications from radiation therapy in this case.
Choice D is incorrect because inspecting the mouth and throat daily for thrush is more relevant for patients receiving chemotherapy or immunosuppressive therapy, not specifically for those undergoing external-beam radiation.
A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
- B. I need to limit my salt intake
- C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
- D. I should eat a balanced diet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I can take acetaminophen for pain." Acetaminophen can be harmful to the liver, especially in individuals with liver cirrhosis. The liver is responsible for metabolizing acetaminophen, and in cirrhosis, its function is impaired, leading to potential toxicity. Choice A is correct as alcohol can worsen liver damage. Choice B is correct as excess salt can lead to fluid retention and complications. Choice D is correct as a balanced diet is important for overall health. Therefore, the statement about taking acetaminophen indicates a need for further teaching.
A patient with anemia is prescribed ferrous sulfate. What advice should the nurse give regarding the administration of this medication?
- A. Take with dairy products to increase absorption.
- B. Take on an empty stomach for best absorption.
- C. Avoid vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Take before bedtime.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Take on an empty stomach for best absorption. Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. When taken with food or dairy products (Choice A), the absorption of iron is reduced. Vitamin C actually enhances the absorption of iron, so avoiding it (Choice C) is not recommended. Taking the medication before bedtime (Choice D) may lead to gastrointestinal side effects and is not optimal for absorption.
What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. It works by blocking the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and potential hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hyperkalemia can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications in heart failure patients.
A: Hypokalemia is incorrect because spironolactone typically causes potassium retention.
C: Hyponatremia and D: Hypernatremia are incorrect as spironolactone does not directly affect sodium levels.
In summary, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential in patients with heart failure taking spironolactone to prevent adverse cardiac events.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
- A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.'
- B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.'
- C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.'
- D. Only take your long-acting insulin.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because skipping insulin can lead to dangerous complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Taking insulin as prescribed ensures blood glucose control, preventing hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose closely helps adjust doses accordingly. Choice A is incorrect as skipping insulin can be life-threatening. Choice C is incorrect as reducing insulin without proper monitoring can lead to unstable glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as both long-acting and short-acting insulin are essential for managing type 1 diabetes.