Nokea
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to reduce phosphorus levels. Taking it with meals allows it to bind with phosphorus in food, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in controlling hyperphosphatemia, a common complication in ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion, promote stomach emptying, or buffer hydrochloric acid.
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A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase intake of high-purine foods.
- C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- D. Expect immediate pain relief.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication with food. Allopurinol can cause stomach upset, so taking it with food can help minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it on an empty stomach may increase the risk of nausea or stomach pain. Choice B is incorrect because increasing high-purine foods can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because limiting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, which is not recommended for gout patients. Choice D is incorrect because allopurinol does not provide immediate pain relief; it works to lower uric acid levels over time to prevent gout attacks.
The patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
- C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
- D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin. In diabetic ketoacidosis, rapid, deep respirations, known as Kussmaul breathing, occur due to compensatory mechanisms to lower blood pH. Normal saline bolus helps correct dehydration and insulin therapy helps lower blood sugar levels, leading to improved acidosis. Option A is incorrect as lorazepam does not address the underlying cause of the rapid respirations. Option B is incorrect as oxygen is not the priority in this situation. Option D is incorrect as guided imagery does not address the physiological needs of the patient in this critical condition.
What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test all stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and infection due to the potential side effect of radiation-induced diarrhea. By maintaining good hygiene in the perianal area, the patient can reduce the risk of complications such as skin irritation and infection.
Choice A is incorrect because testing stools for the presence of blood is not directly related to preventing complications from external-beam radiation.
Choice B is incorrect because while a high-residue, high-fiber diet may be beneficial for some cancer patients, it is not specifically recommended to prevent complications from radiation therapy in this case.
Choice D is incorrect because inspecting the mouth and throat daily for thrush is more relevant for patients receiving chemotherapy or immunosuppressive therapy, not specifically for those undergoing external-beam radiation.
A patient with hyperthyroidism is to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
- A. Avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week.
- B. Take iodine supplement daily.
- C. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- D. Use disposable utensils for all meals.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The rationale is that radioactive iodine therapy can harm a developing fetus, so patients should avoid close contact with pregnant women for one week. Choice B is incorrect as iodine supplements can interfere with the therapy. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should not be restricted unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to use disposable utensils for all meals.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.