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A patient with a history of haemophilia A arrives in the emergency department complaining of a “funny feeling” in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. Palpate the patient’s elbow to assess for swelling.
- B. Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII.
- C. Prepare the patient for an x-ray examination to determine whether bleeding is occurring.
- D. Apply heat to the patient’s elbow and wait for the physician to examine the patient.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII. In a patient with hemophilia A, which is a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, bleeding into a joint can lead to serious complications. The nurse should notify the physician promptly because the patient may need factor VIII replacement therapy to stop the bleeding and prevent further damage. This is a medical emergency requiring timely intervention.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Palpating the elbow could exacerbate the bleeding and cause further damage.
C: Ordering an x-ray would delay the crucial factor VIII replacement therapy needed to manage the bleeding.
D: Applying heat can increase blood flow to the joint, worsening the bleeding.
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The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Elevated serum acetone level
- B. Serum alkalosis
- C. Serum ketone bodies
- D. Below-normal serum potassium level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis.
Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia.
Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium.
Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS.
Summary:
A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS.
C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
- A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts
- B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
- C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
- D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
- A. 24 hours
- B. 7 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 4 days
- D. 21 to 28 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Which of the ff finding would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply
- A. A crack in the nipple or the areola
- B. Multiple lumps within the breast tissue
- C. Swollen, firm, and hard breasts
- D. Enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
- A. Risk
- B. Problem focused
- C. Health promotion
- D. Collaborative problem
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. This type of diagnosis focuses on improving the client's well-being and maximizing their health potential. By adding Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination to the care plan, the nurse acknowledges the patient's willingness to learn self-catheterization, which aligns with health promotion. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Risk) implies potential harm, B (Problem focused) focuses on current issues, and D (Collaborative problem) involves multiple healthcare providers working together on a specific problem.