Nokea
A patient with a history of pulmonary embolism asks how to lower the risk of experiencing another pulmonary embolism. You respond by saying
- A. Take vitamin K with heparin.
- B. Avoid confined spaces.
- C. Avoid sitting and standing for too long and do not cross your legs.
- D. Jog 5 miles each day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prolonged immobility increases the risk of pulmonary embolism.
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A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?
- A. 300 mL
- B. 480 mL
- C. 800 mL
- D. 950 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 480 mL. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the tidal volume should be set at 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. Therefore, for a 60 kg individual, the tidal volume should be between 360-480 mL. B falls within this range and is the most appropriate choice.
A: 300 mL is too low and would not provide adequate ventilation for a client of this weight.
C: 800 mL is too high and could lead to overventilation and potential lung injury.
D: 950 mL is also too high and poses the same risks as option C.
In summary, B is the correct choice as it falls within the appropriate tidal volume range based on the client's ideal weight, while the other options are either too low or too high.
When assessing a patient for anaphylaxis, you would be alert for
- A. Chest pain and indigestion.
- B. Hives and dyspnea.
- C. Hypertension and blurred vision.
- D. Headache and photophobia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anaphylaxis often presents with hives and difficulty breathing.
What does cromolyn sodium act to do?
- A. Combat respiratory infection
- B. Constrict smooth muscle in the bronchial tree
- C. Prevent the release of histamine
- D. Terminate an asthmatic attack
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium inhibits mast cell degranulation, preventing histamine release.
Thirty-six hours postoperatively a patient has a temperature of 100°F (37.8°C). What is the most likely cause of this temperature elevation?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Wound infection
- C. Lung congestion and atelectasis
- D. Normal surgical stress response
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low-grade fever within the first 48 hours postoperatively is typically a normal response to surgical stress.
A 47-year-old client is admitted for colon surgery. Intravenous antibiotics are started two hours prior to surgery even though the client has no known infection. The reason for giving antibiotics prior to surgery is to:
- A. provide a cathartic action within the colon.
- B. reduce the risk of wound infection from anaerobic bacteria.
- C. relieve anxiety.
- D. reduce the risk of intraoperative fever.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cathartics, not antibiotics, promote the evacuation of intestinal contents. The client undergoing intestinal surgery is at an increased risk for infection from large numbers of anaerobic bacteria that inhabit the intestines. Administering antibiotics prophylactically can reduce the client's risk for infection. Antibiotics are indicated in the treatment of infections and have no effect on emotions. Antibiotics would have an effect on an infection which causes a temperature elevation, but they would not directly affect the temperature elevation.