Nokea
A patient with a severe bacterial infection has elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) in their blood. Which of the following functions does CRP primarily serve during the acute phase response?
- A. Opsonization of pathogens
- B. Activation of complement system
- C. Phagocytosis of pathogens
- D. Neutralization of toxins
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the acute phase response, C-reactive protein (CRP) primarily serves to activate the complement system. CRP binds to phosphocholine on the surface of pathogens, allowing for the activation of the classical pathway of the complement system. This leads to the recruitment of immune cells, opsonization of pathogens, and enhancement of phagocytosis. The activation of the complement system by CRP plays a crucial role in the host defense against infections, aiding in the elimination of pathogens and the resolution of inflammation.
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Which danger sign would warrant stoppage of pills?
- A. Clear vision
- B. Decrease blood pressure
- C. Simple colds
- D. Elevation of blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevation of blood pressure would warrant stoppage of pills. High blood pressure, or hypertension, in a 4-year-old child is abnormal and needs prompt medical attention. Giving pills without monitoring or stopping them if blood pressure is elevated can lead to serious health complications. It is important to address the underlying cause of high blood pressure in a child, which may require further evaluation and management by a healthcare provider.
Which is the BEST strategy that Nurse should employ to give feedback on patients evaluation of health services?
- A. Put the evaluation at supervisors office
- B. Send letter to all
- C. Conduct staff meeting
- D. Through bulletin board
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conducting a staff meeting is the best strategy for Nurse Nena to give feedback on patients' evaluation of health services. This option allows for direct communication and interaction with the team, ensuring that feedback is effectively conveyed, discussed, and understood by all members. Staff meetings provide a platform for open dialogue, clarification of any concerns, and collaborative problem-solving. It also promotes team cohesion and shared accountability in improving health services based on patients' feedback. This approach encourages active participation and engagement from all team members, fostering a more effective and comprehensive response to the evaluations received.
Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?
- A. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure
- B. Monitoring mean arterial pressure
- C. Monitoring cardiac enzymes
- D. Measuring central venous pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.
The PRC-Board of Nursing (PR-BON) has the power to regulate Nursing Practice in the Philippines. The regulatory functions include the following except
- A. enforce and monitor quality standards of nursing practice in the county
- B. issue, suspend revoke or reissue certification of registered nurses
- C. ensure proper conduct. Or nurses 1icensure in the county
- D. issue permit for the opening of nursing programs in the country
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Philippine Regulatory Commission - Board of Nursing (PRC-BON) has the power to regulate nursing practice in the Philippines.
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Open-angle glaucoma
- B. Closed-angle glaucoma
- C. Age-related macular degeneration
- D. Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.