Nokea
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
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The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has first had a tepid sponge bath.
- B. Administer the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears.
- D. Advise the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears. This is important because ringing in the ears can be a sign of salicylate toxicity, a potential side effect of aspirin use in children with rheumatic fever. It is crucial to monitor for this symptom to prevent serious complications.
A: Instructing the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has a tepid sponge bath is not the most important intervention. Managing salicylate toxicity takes precedence over comfort measures.
B: Administering the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice is a general guideline for medication administration but not the most critical intervention in this scenario.
D: Advising the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects is not directly related to the potential side effects of aspirin in this case. Monitoring for salicylate toxicity through symptoms like ringing in the ears is more crucial.
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain when coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications.
A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort.
D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. This is due to its effect on fibroblasts in the gums, leading to increased connective tissue production. Hypotension (A), bradycardia (C), and hyperkalemia (D) are not common side effects of phenytoin. Monitoring for gingival hyperplasia is crucial to prevent complications such as difficulty in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral hygiene.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day. This instruction is crucial for a client with heart failure taking furosemide as sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which can worsen heart failure. Monitoring weight daily can help detect early signs of fluid overload.
A: Taking the medication before bedtime is not a critical instruction for furosemide as it is usually taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
C: Increasing intake of high-sodium foods contradicts the purpose of furosemide, which is a diuretic used to reduce fluid retention by promoting diuresis.
D: Limiting fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can be harmful for a client with heart failure.