Nokea
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is an important teaching point for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take folic acid supplements as prescribed.
- B. Avoid alcohol completely.
- C. Expect to see immediate results.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take folic acid supplements as prescribed. Methotrexate can lead to folic acid deficiency, causing side effects. Supplementing with folic acid can help manage these side effects. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of taking folic acid as prescribed to prevent adverse effects.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Avoid alcohol completely - While alcohol should be limited or avoided due to potential liver toxicity with methotrexate, complete avoidance may not be necessary for all patients.
C: Expect to see immediate results - Methotrexate takes time to work, and patients should not expect immediate results. Patience is necessary.
D: Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day - There is no specific guideline to limit fluid intake with methotrexate. Adequate hydration is important for overall health.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Take the medication with meals.
- D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal side effects.
2. Taking it with meals helps reduce stomach upset.
3. It also helps in better absorption and effectiveness.
4. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the patient to take metformin with meals.
Summary of other choices:
A: Taking on an empty stomach can worsen gastrointestinal side effects.
B: Metformin doesn't typically cause hypoglycemia.
D: Increasing simple carbohydrates can counteract the effects of metformin.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promote red blood cell production. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. This is crucial for patients with CKD who often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production.
A: Stimulating white blood cell production is the function of other medications, such as colony-stimulating factors, not erythropoietin.
B: Erythropoietin does not have an effect on platelet count.
D: Enhancing clotting factor production is not the primary action of erythropoietin.
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.