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A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Take an extra dose if you miss one.
- B. Avoid high-potassium foods.
- C. Report any visual disturbances.
- D. Stop taking the medication if your pulse is normal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report any visual disturbances. This is important because digoxin can cause visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow-tinted vision, which may indicate toxicity. By reporting these symptoms promptly, the nurse can prevent serious complications.
A: Taking an extra dose if a dose is missed can lead to overdose and toxicity.
B: Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin.
D: Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect as it should be taken as prescribed for heart failure management.
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The patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min.
- C. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin.
- D. Encourage the patient to practice guided imagery for relaxation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin. In diabetic ketoacidosis, rapid, deep respirations, known as Kussmaul breathing, occur due to compensatory mechanisms to lower blood pH. Normal saline bolus helps correct dehydration and insulin therapy helps lower blood sugar levels, leading to improved acidosis. Option A is incorrect as lorazepam does not address the underlying cause of the rapid respirations. Option B is incorrect as oxygen is not the priority in this situation. Option D is incorrect as guided imagery does not address the physiological needs of the patient in this critical condition.
A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
- A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
- B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
- C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
- D. Mini-Mental State Examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). This tool is specifically designed to assess for alcohol abuse in older adults, which is relevant in this case as alcohol consumption can be a risk factor for pancreatitis. The SMAST-G helps identify potential alcohol-related issues in the elderly population, allowing for appropriate interventions and care planning.
Rationale:
A: The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) is not the most appropriate tool in this scenario as it focuses on broader drug abuse rather than specifically alcohol abuse.
B: The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar) is used to assess for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, not alcohol abuse itself.
D: The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, which is not directly relevant to the admission assessment for pancreatitis in this case.
What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.
The community mental health nurse is planning to visit four clients with schizophrenia today. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them.
- B. The young man who has a history of substance abuse and no telephone.
- C. The newly diagnosed client who needs to be evaluated for medication compliance.
- D. The young woman who believes she is to blame for her recent miscarriage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The mother who took her children from school because aliens were after them should be seen first. This choice indicates potential harm to the children due to the mother's delusions, posing an immediate safety concern. The nurse needs to assess the situation and ensure the children's safety. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety risks. B is a history of substance abuse but no current immediate danger. C is newly diagnosed and can wait for evaluation, as can D who may need support but is not in immediate danger. Prioritizing safety is crucial in mental health nursing.