A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic
- A. In the urethra nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit.
- B. threatening effect of renal failure for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it correctly identifies the patient's condition as "uremic nephropathy," a common complication of renal failure in diabetic patients. Uremic nephropathy refers to the damage to the kidneys caused by the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to renal failure. This choice accurately describes the patient's primary diagnosis and the reason for admission.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific diagnosis or reason for the patient's admission, only mentioning the threatening effect of renal failure without specifying the underlying cause.
Choice C and D are incomplete and do not provide any information related to the patient's condition, making them incorrect.
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Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Indinavir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ganciclovir is the preferred antiviral for CMV infections due to its effectiveness against CMV.
2. It works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, stopping viral replication.
3. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used for HIV, not CMV.
4. Amantadine is used for influenza A virus, not CMV.
5. Foscarnet is an alternative for CMV if ganciclovir is not tolerated.
What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase?
- A. A return to normal weight
- B. A urine output of 3700 mL/day
- C. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels
- D. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. A urine output of 3700 mL/day indicates improved kidney function.
2. Increased urine output signifies the kidneys are able to filter and excrete waste.
3. High urine output is a positive sign of recovery in AKI patients.
4. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function.
5. Return to normal weight (choice A) may not directly indicate kidney recovery.
6. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels (choice C) can be due to other factors.
7. Decreasing BUN and creatinine levels (choice D) are important but do not directly indicate the recovery phase in AKI patients.
Which of the following is a respiratory response to acidosis?
- A. secretion of H+
- B. increase tubule buffer activity
- C. decreased respiratory rate
- D. decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased respiratory rate. Acidosis is a condition where the blood pH is below the normal range, leading to increased levels of carbon dioxide. To compensate, the body increases respiratory rate to eliminate excess CO2 through the lungs. Therefore, in response to acidosis, the respiratory rate decreases.
A: Secretion of H+ is a metabolic response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
B: Increased tubule buffer activity is a renal response, not a respiratory response to acidosis.
D: Decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio is a consequence of respiratory diseases but not a direct response to acidosis.
Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being * given the same drug in the future?
- A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
- B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
- C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimetoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
- D. Clostridium decile superinfection from Ooxacin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction characterized by rash, blistering, and mucosal involvement. Once a patient experiences Steven-Johnson syndrome from a specific drug like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, they should never be given that drug again due to the high risk of recurrence and the severity of the reaction. This is known as a contraindication, making it unsafe to administer the drug in the future.
A, B, and D are incorrect because GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ciprofloxacin, while unpleasant, are not typically considered contraindications for future use of the same drug. These adverse reactions can often be managed with dose adjustments, alternative medications, or supportive care without ruling out the drug entirely
Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s) * a Staphylococci
- A. Streptococci
- B. Gonococci
- C. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci.
2. Streptococci are not within the spectrum of activity for Cloxacillin.
3. Gonococci are also not susceptible to Cloxacillin.
4. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Streptococci), as Cloxacillin is indicated only for Staphylococcal infections.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because Cloxacillin is effective against Staphylococci. Choices B and C are incorrect because Cloxacillin is not indicated for Gonococci or all of the organisms mentioned.