Nokea
A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a thiazide diuretic that reduces calcium excretion, preventing stone formation. Furosemide (A) and spironolactone (B) do not target calcium excretion specifically. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and not commonly used for calcium stones.
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Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:
- A. Polyuria and urgency
- B. Dysuria and oliguria
- C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
- D. Foul-smelling urine and dysuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Prostatic hypertrophy causes an enlarged prostate gland.
2. Enlarged prostate can lead to symptoms like straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.
3. These symptoms are due to obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
4. Polyuria, urgency, dysuria, oliguria, and foul-smelling urine are not typical symptoms of prostatic hypertrophy.
Summary:
Choice C is correct because it directly relates to the obstructive symptoms caused by prostatic hypertrophy. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical symptoms of this condition and are therefore incorrect.
During a pelvic examination, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix is irregular and hard to the touch. The nurse's next best action would be to:
- A. Perform a Pap smear test to confirm the diagnosis.
- B. Referral to a gynecologist for further examination.
- C. Complete a cervical cancer screening.
- D. Complete an endometrial biopsy to assess for malignancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral to a gynecologist for further examination. This is the best course of action because an irregular and hard cervix can indicate various underlying issues such as cervical dysplasia, fibroids, or cervical stenosis. A gynecologist can conduct a more thorough evaluation including additional tests like colposcopy or ultrasound to determine the cause and appropriate treatment.
A: Performing a Pap smear test may not provide sufficient information about the specific condition causing the irregularity.
C: Completing a cervical cancer screening may not address the immediate concern of the irregular and hard cervix.
D: Completing an endometrial biopsy is not indicated for assessing cervical abnormalities, as it focuses on the endometrium rather than the cervix.
The clinic nurse is preparing a plan of care for a
- A. What role The clinic nurse should recognize what type of will the nurse have in implementing a behavioral therapy incontinence? approach?
- B. Stress incontinence
- C. Provide medication teaching related to
- D. Reflex incontinence pseudoephedrine sulfat
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the clinic nurse needs to recognize the role they will have in implementing a behavioral therapy approach for incontinence. This involves assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating the behavioral interventions to help manage the condition effectively. Choice B is incorrect as it only identifies a type of incontinence without addressing the nurse's role in care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on medication teaching, which is not related to behavioral therapy. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions a medication, pseudoephedrine sulfate, which is not relevant to implementing a behavioral therapy approach.
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH, non – peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH’s water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
- A. Mannitol
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, indicated for managing SIADH by blocking ADH's water-sparing effects in the collecting ducts. Mannitol (A) is an osmotic diuretic used for reducing intracranial pressure, not specifically for SIADH. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema. Spironolactone (C) is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like hypertension and heart failure, not specifically for SIADH.
Which of the following drug/(s) that is /are used to treat chronic hepatitis B? *
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Human interferon α
- C. Amantadine
- D. (
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A (Lamivudine) is correct:
1. Lamivudine is a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat chronic hepatitis B.
2. It inhibits the replication of the hepatitis B virus, reducing viral load and liver damage.
3. Clinical studies have shown its efficacy in improving liver function and reducing the risk of cirrhosis.
4. Lamivudine is recommended as a first-line treatment option by major medical guidelines.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B. Human interferon α: While interferon therapy was previously used, it is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and lower efficacy compared to newer drugs.
C. Amantadine: Amantadine is not recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B as it is not effective against the hepatitis B virus.
D. (: This is not a valid drug option for treating chronic hepatitis B.