Age Specific Care Quiz Related

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A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:

  • A. haloperidol (Haldol).
  • B. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
  • C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
  • D. chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that is known to be effective in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as apathy, poverty of thought, and social withdrawal. These symptoms are often resistant to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol (A) and chlorpromazine (D), which are more effective for positive symptoms like hallucinations. Diphenhydramine (C) is an antihistamine and not used to treat schizophrenia symptoms. In summary, olanzapine is the best choice to address the specific symptoms described in the scenario.