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A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:
- A. haloperidol (Haldol).
- B. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that addresses both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. In this case, the patient still experiences negative symptoms like apathy, poverty of thought, and social withdrawal. Olanzapine has been shown to be effective in improving negative symptoms and overall functioning in patients with schizophrenia.
A: haloperidol is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic that primarily targets positive symptoms like hallucinations, not negative symptoms.
C: diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with no known efficacy for treating schizophrenia symptoms.
D: chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic like haloperidol and is not typically used for addressing negative symptoms.
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A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has ______, and the nurse should ______.
- A. a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
- B. tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage
- C. waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
- D. akathisia"¦administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin).
1. Step: Identify the symptoms - The patient has head rotation, stiff fixed position, and lower jaw thrust forward, indicating dystonia.
2. Step: Understand dystonic reactions - Dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol.
3. Step: Choose appropriate treatment - Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat acute dystonic reactions.
4. Step: Administer the medication - IM benztropine is the correct route for acute treatment of dystonia.
Summary:
- Choice B (tardive dyskinesia) is incorrect because the symptoms described are acute and not consistent with the gradual onset of tardive dyskinesia.
- Choice C (waxy flexibility) is incorrect because it is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of ant
At 11:00 AM, a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits concrete thinking asks the nurse for PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). However, he last had it at 8:00 AM, and it is ordered only every 4 hours. Which nursing response would be most therapeutic?
- A. I'm sorry, it's not quite time yet; please come back again in 1 hour.'
- B. I'm sorry, it's not quite time yet; please come back again at 12 noon.'
- C. It's not time yet; please come back when both hands of the clock point straight up.'
- D. It's not time yet; I will let you know when it is time. Perhaps a nap would help?'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a clear, concrete instruction that the patient can easily understand. By stating "come back when both hands of the clock point straight up," the nurse offers a specific and visual cue for the patient to know when it's time for the medication. This approach aligns with the patient's concrete thinking and helps him grasp the concept of time more effectively.
Choice A is incorrect because stating "in 1 hour" may be too abstract for a patient with concrete thinking. Choice B is also incorrect as it provides a general time frame without a visual reference, which may confuse the patient. Choice D is incorrect as suggesting a nap does not address the patient's request for medication and does not provide a clear time frame.
A client with schizophrenia is medication compliant and has well-controlled symptoms. He has, however, never been successful in holding a job because of poor social skills and lack of understanding of basic job skills. The nurse case manager should consider referring the client:
- A. To a day hospital program
- B. For psychosocial rehabilitation
- C. For cognitive therapy
- D. To assertiveness training
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For psychosocial rehabilitation. This option is the most appropriate because the client is struggling with social skills and job-related skills. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs focus on improving social and vocational skills, which are essential for the client to succeed in holding a job. These programs also provide support and training tailored to the individual's needs. Referring the client to a day hospital program (A) may not address his specific vocational needs. Cognitive therapy (C) primarily focuses on addressing cognitive distortions and may not directly target social and vocational skills. Assertiveness training (D) may be helpful but may not fully address the client's broader vocational challenges.
A nurse would attempt to reduce nighttime agitation for a patient with either delirium or dementia by:
- A. giving warm milk as a snack at bedtime.
- B. keeping a soft light on in the patient's room.
- C. placing a large-faced lighted alarm clock opposite the bed.
- D. hanging family pictures near enough to the bed to be easily seen.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: keeping a soft light on in the patient's room. This helps to reduce nighttime agitation by providing a soothing environment without complete darkness, which can cause confusion and disorientation in patients with delirium or dementia. Warm milk (A) may not address the underlying cause of agitation. A large-faced lighted alarm clock (C) may be distracting and increase confusion. Family pictures (D) may not directly impact nighttime agitation and could potentially overstimulate the patient.
What is a common consequence of long-term purging in patients with bulimia nervosa?
- A. Improved digestive health and better nutrient absorption.
- B. Increased risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- C. Improved self-esteem and body image.
- D. Decreased risk of cardiovascular problems and hypertension.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term purging in patients with bulimia nervosa can lead to increased risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Purging behaviors such as vomiting or laxative abuse can disrupt the body's fluid and electrolyte balance, potentially causing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. These imbalances can have serious health consequences, including cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and kidney damage.
Incorrect choices:
A: Improved digestive health and better nutrient absorption - Purging does not improve digestive health or nutrient absorption; rather, it can lead to nutrient deficiencies.
C: Improved self-esteem and body image - Purging behaviors are harmful and do not lead to improved self-esteem or body image.
D: Decreased risk of cardiovascular problems and hypertension - Purging behaviors can actually increase the risk of cardiovascular problems due to electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.