Nokea
A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?
- A. Rapid-acting
- B. Intermediate-acting
- C. Long-acting
- D. Short-acting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin due to its slow and consistent release, providing basal insulin coverage for about 24 hours. This steady release mimics the body's natural basal insulin secretion pattern. Rapid-acting insulins (A) work quickly to control postprandial glucose levels. Intermediate-acting insulins (B) have a slower onset and last for a moderate duration. Short-acting insulins (D) act quickly but have a shorter duration of action compared to long-acting insulins.
You may also like to solve these questions
An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?
- A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
- B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
- C. Wears protective shoes.
- D. Quits smoking.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return by preventing blood from pooling in the legs, reducing venous congestion. This behavior promotes circulation and decreases the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address venous congestion or circulation improvement, making them incorrect options. Avoiding trauma and irritation to the skin (B) is important for skin integrity but not specifically for venous congestion. Wearing protective shoes (C) is related to preventing foot injuries but does not directly impact venous congestion. Quitting smoking (D) is beneficial for overall health but does not directly target venous congestion.
A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?
- A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
- B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
- C. The client clenches fist upon command.
- D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride causes muscle paralysis, leading to the extremities being paralyzed. This indicates that the medication is effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission.
B: Twitching with peripheral nerve stimulation indicates incomplete blockade.
C: Clenching fist upon command indicates preserved muscle strength.
D: Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade.
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
- B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because expelling the air bubble from the syringe before injection helps ensure accurate dosage delivery and prevents air from being injected into the patient. Administering the injection in the thigh (A) is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically given in the abdomen. Massaging the injection site (C) can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Alternating injection sites between arms (D) is not relevant as enoxaparin is usually given in the abdomen.
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.