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What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Reduce blood pressure
- C. Lower cholesterol levels
- D. Decrease blood sugar levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary action of amlodipine is to reduce blood pressure by relaxing and dilating blood vessels, leading to improved blood flow and lower blood pressure. This is achieved by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels. Increasing heart rate (A), lowering cholesterol levels (C), and decreasing blood sugar levels (D) are not the primary actions of amlodipine and are not directly related to its mechanism of action in treating hypertension.
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What should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed ceftriaxone for bacterial pneumonia?
- A. Take the medication as prescribed.
- B. Expect urine color changes.
- C. Complete the full course of the antibiotic.
- D. Avoid dairy products during treatment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used for bacterial pneumonia. Completing the full course is essential to completely eradicate the infection and prevent antibiotic resistance. Taking medication as prescribed is a general principle, but not specific to this medication. Urine color changes are not associated with ceftriaxone. Dairy products do not interact with ceftriaxone.
The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
- B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
- C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. The rationale is as follows: 1) Drinking water with low intermittent suction can cause complications. 2) Immediate action is necessary to prevent harm. 3) Speaking to the UAP clarifies the situation and provides education. 4) Removing the glass of water ensures the client's safety.
Incorrect choices:
B: Discussing at the end of the day delays action and puts the client at risk.
C: Writing an incident report is important, but immediate intervention is needed first.
D: Reminding the client of electrolyte imbalance does not address the current issue of drinking water with a nasogastric tube.
A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit acid secretion before food intake. Taking it with meals (choice A) may decrease its effectiveness as it needs time to be absorbed. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) may not provide optimal coverage throughout the day. Taking it after meals (choice D) may not allow enough time for the medication to start working before the next meal.
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain when coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications.
A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort.
D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Treat hyperkalemia
- B. Reduce phosphate levels
- C. Lower blood pressure
- D. Increase hemoglobin levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate for a patient with CKD is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate acts as a phosphate binder, preventing the absorption of dietary phosphate in the intestines. Elevated phosphate levels in CKD can lead to complications such as mineral and bone disorders. Treating hyperkalemia (A) involves other medications like potassium binders, not calcium acetate. Lowering blood pressure (C) typically involves antihypertensive drugs. Increasing hemoglobin levels (D) is usually managed with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents in CKD patients. Therefore, option B is the correct answer for the primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate in CKD patients.