Nokea
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.
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A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain when coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications.
A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort.
D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing montelukast?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing montelukast for a patient with asthma is to prevent asthma attacks. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that helps to reduce inflammation in the airways, thereby preventing asthma symptoms and attacks. It is not used to relieve acute bronchospasm (Choice A), as it is not a fast-acting rescue medication like a bronchodilator. Montelukast also does not thin respiratory secretions (Choice C) or suppress cough (Choice D) as its main mechanism of action is to prevent and control asthma symptoms by inhibiting leukotrienes.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause an increase in blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing insulin sensitivity. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial as it can lead to serious complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Bradycardia (B) and hypotension (C) are not typical side effects of prednisone, as it tends to cause fluid retention and hypertension. Hyperkalemia (D) is also unlikely as prednisone can actually cause hypokalemia due to increased renal potassium excretion.
What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Decrease cardiac output
- C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary action of digoxin in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions. Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the force of myocardial contractions. This helps improve cardiac output and symptoms of heart failure.
Explanation:
A: Incorrect - Digoxin does not increase heart rate, it mainly affects the strength of contractions.
B: Incorrect - Digoxin does not decrease cardiac output; it actually helps improve it by enhancing contractility.
D: Incorrect - Digoxin may have a slight effect on lowering blood pressure, but its primary action in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions, not lower blood pressure.