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When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because surgical correction of hypospadias is typically recommended before the child is potty-trained. This is important for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes, as the procedure is more straightforward in infants due to their smaller anatomy. Delaying the surgery can lead to increased risk of complications and potential psychological impact on the child as they grow older.
A: Repair within one month to prevent bladder infections is not the primary reason for early correction of hypospadias.
C: Delaying the repair to school age for reducing castration fears is not a valid reason for postponing the surgery.
D: Waiting until after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra repair is not recommended as early correction typically yields better results.
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A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?
- A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
- B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
- C. The client clenches fist upon command.
- D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride causes muscle paralysis, leading to the extremities being paralyzed. This indicates that the medication is effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission.
B: Twitching with peripheral nerve stimulation indicates incomplete blockade.
C: Clenching fist upon command indicates preserved muscle strength.
D: Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade.
When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?
- A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
- C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
- D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion. The client is showing early signs of a transfusion reaction, as evidenced by feeling 'out of breath'. By decreasing the flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate at which the remaining blood is infused, potentially preventing a more severe reaction. Administering diphenhydramine or albuterol would not address the underlying issue of a potential transfusion reaction. Starting normal saline at the same rate may exacerbate the client's symptoms and is not indicated in this scenario.
While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
- B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
- D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep inflamed cracks at the corners of the mouth can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). Ensuring the client gets adequate B vitamins through foods or supplements can help address the deficiency and improve the condition. Option A is incorrect as simply applying a moisturizing cream does not address the underlying cause. Option B is not the best choice because while vitamin B-rich foods are beneficial, they may not be sufficient to correct a deficiency. Option C is not the immediate priority unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase energy levels
- B. Induce sedation
- C. Elevate mood
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce anxiety. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that acts on the central nervous system to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which helps to calm the brain and reduce anxiety. This medication does not increase energy levels (choice A), induce sedation (choice B), or elevate mood (choice C). Alprazolam's primary action is to target and alleviate the symptoms of anxiety by promoting relaxation and reducing excessive brain activity associated with anxiety disorders.
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.