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A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Take the medication with meals.
- D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal side effects.
2. Taking it with meals helps reduce stomach upset.
3. It also helps in better absorption and effectiveness.
4. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the patient to take metformin with meals.
Summary of other choices:
A: Taking on an empty stomach can worsen gastrointestinal side effects.
B: Metformin doesn't typically cause hypoglycemia.
D: Increasing simple carbohydrates can counteract the effects of metformin.
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A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Bounding erratic pulse.
- B. Regularly irregular pulse.
- C. Thready irregular pulse.
- D. No palpable pulse.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No palpable pulse. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia where the heart quivers and doesn't effectively pump blood. This results in the absence of a palpable pulse. The nurse should anticipate this finding as it indicates a severe cardiac emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ventricular fibrillation leads to ineffective heart contractions, causing a lack of pulse rather than bounding, irregular, or thready pulses. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the absence of a palpable pulse to initiate prompt resuscitative measures.
When assessing a male client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs), the nurse notes that the infusion was started 30 minutes ago, and 50 ml of blood is left to be infused. The client's vital signs are within normal limits. He reports feeling 'out of breath' but denies any other complaints. What action should the nurse take at this time?
- A. Administer a PRN prescription for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- B. Start the normal saline attached to the Y-tubing at the same rate.
- C. Decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion.
- D. Ask the respiratory therapist to administer PRN albuterol (Ventolin).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to decrease the intravenous flow rate of the PRBC transfusion. The client is showing early signs of a transfusion reaction, as evidenced by feeling 'out of breath'. By decreasing the flow rate of the transfusion, the nurse can slow down the rate at which the remaining blood is infused, potentially preventing a more severe reaction. Administering diphenhydramine or albuterol would not address the underlying issue of a potential transfusion reaction. Starting normal saline at the same rate may exacerbate the client's symptoms and is not indicated in this scenario.
Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has first had a tepid sponge bath.
- B. Administer the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears.
- D. Advise the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears. This is important because ringing in the ears can be a sign of salicylate toxicity, a potential side effect of aspirin use in children with rheumatic fever. It is crucial to monitor for this symptom to prevent serious complications.
A: Instructing the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has a tepid sponge bath is not the most important intervention. Managing salicylate toxicity takes precedence over comfort measures.
B: Administering the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice is a general guideline for medication administration but not the most critical intervention in this scenario.
D: Advising the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects is not directly related to the potential side effects of aspirin in this case. Monitoring for salicylate toxicity through symptoms like ringing in the ears is more crucial.
The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?
- A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
- B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
- C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
- D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sevelamer (RenaGel) is a phosphate binder used in ESRD to bind with phosphorus in foods, preventing its absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. This is important as ESRD patients often have high levels of phosphorus in their blood, which can lead to complications like cardiovascular disease. Taking RenaGel with meals ensures that it binds with phosphorus in the food, reducing its absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as RenaGel does not prevent indigestion associated with spicy foods. Choice C is incorrect as RenaGel does not promote stomach emptying or prevent gastric reflux. Choice D is incorrect as RenaGel does not buffer hydrochloric acid or prevent gastric erosion.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect.
2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia.
3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects.
4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin.
- Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively.
- Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.