Nokea
A person met with an accident and died instantly without any injury to heart, brain, stomach and kidney. One of the following is a reason for his death
- A. Intestine got twisted
- B. RBC became coagulated
- C. Stomach stopped digestion
- D. Diaphragm got punctured
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diaphragm got punctured. The diaphragm is a crucial muscle responsible for breathing. If it gets punctured, it can lead to immediate death due to respiratory failure. In this scenario, since there are no injuries to vital organs like the heart, brain, stomach, or kidney, the only plausible reason for instant death would be a punctured diaphragm affecting the person's ability to breathe.
A: Intestine getting twisted would not lead to instant death without affecting the heart, brain, stomach, or kidney.
B: RBC becoming coagulated would not result in immediate death without directly impacting vital organs.
C: Stomach stopping digestion is not a life-threatening condition that would cause instant death without injury to vital organs.
You may also like to solve these questions
During hyperpnea:
- A. only the internal intercostal muscles contract.
- B. inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
- C. inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
- D. both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During hyperpnea, which is increased rate and depth of breathing, both inspiration and expiration require muscular contractions. Inspiration involves the diaphragm contracting and external intercostal muscles expanding the rib cage, while expiration involves the internal intercostal muscles contracting to decrease the thoracic cavity volume. This increased muscular effort is necessary to meet the increased oxygen demand of the body during hyperpnea. Options A and C are incorrect as they incorrectly describe either inspiration or expiration as passive. Option B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that expiration is passive, which is not the case during hyperpnea.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse give a client about his active tuberculosis (TB)?
- A. "It's okay to miss a dose every day or two."
- B. "If side effects occur, stop taking the medication."
- C. "Only take the medication until you feel better."
- D. "You must comply with the medication regimen to treat TB."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because adherence to the medication regimen is crucial in treating active TB to prevent drug resistance and ensure successful treatment. Missing doses can lead to treatment failure and the spread of TB. Option A is incorrect because missing doses compromises treatment effectiveness. Option B is incorrect as stopping medication due to side effects can also result in treatment failure. Option C is incorrect because TB treatment must be completed as prescribed, regardless of symptom improvement.
A nurse assesses a client after an open lung biopsy. Which assessment finding is matched with the correct intervention?
- A. Client reports being dizzy—nurse calls the Rapid Response Team.
- B. Client's heart rate is 55 beats/min—nurse withholds pain medication.
- C. Client has reduced breath sounds—nurse calls primary health care provider immediately.
- D. Client's respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min—nurse decreases oxygen flow rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reduced breath sounds after an open lung biopsy could indicate a potential complication such as pneumothorax, requiring immediate attention. Calling the primary health care provider allows for timely assessment and intervention.
Choice A is incorrect because dizziness alone may not warrant calling the Rapid Response Team without further assessment.
Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 55 beats/min may not necessarily indicate a need to withhold pain medication without considering other factors.
Choice D is incorrect as a respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min does not necessarily mean the oxygen flow rate should be decreased without further assessment.
Which of the following signs may be revealed in a client with tonsillar infection by a visual examination if group A streptococci is the cause?
- A. White patches on the tonsils
- B. Hemorrhage in the tonsils
- C. Hypertrophied tonsils
- D. Bleeding in the tonsils
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. White patches on the tonsils are characteristic of streptococcal infections, such as strep throat. B (hemorrhage) and D (bleeding) are not typical findings in streptococcal infections. C (hypertrophied tonsils) may occur but is not specific to group A streptococci.
Which of these statements is correct?
- A. Regular bronchioles are the most distal part of the respiratory tract to contain glands.
- B. Larynx do contain significant amounts of smooth muscle
- C. Goblet cells are abundant in the small bronchi and respiratory bronchioles
- D. Elastic fibres are more abundant in the bronchi and bronchioles than the upper respiratory tract.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because elastic fibers are more abundant in the bronchi and bronchioles than the upper respiratory tract. Elastic fibers provide elasticity and recoil to help with airway expansion and contraction during breathing. This is crucial in the bronchi and bronchioles to maintain airflow dynamics.
Choice A is incorrect because regular bronchioles do not contain glands; they are found in the respiratory bronchioles. Choice B is incorrect because larynx contains a significant amount of cartilage, not smooth muscle. Choice C is incorrect because goblet cells are abundant in the larger bronchi, trachea, and bronchioles, not in the small bronchi and respiratory bronchioles.