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A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located?
- A. Within the epididymis
- B. Below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra
- C. On the inner epithelium lining the scrotum, lateral to the testes
- D. Medial to the vas deferens
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Cowper glands, also known as bulbourethral glands, are a pair of small exocrine glands located below the prostate gland, within the posterior aspect of the male urethra. These glands are responsible for producing a clear, viscous fluid that helps lubricate the urethra, neutralize acidic urine remnants, and provide a conducive environment for sperm to survive in the urethra. Inflammation of the Cowper glands can result in conditions such as urethritis or other discomfort related to the male reproductive system.
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You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply.
- A. Use a lip lubricant.
- B. Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush.
- C. Use dental floss every 24 hours.
- D. Rinse the mouth with normal saline. E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Using a lip lubricant can help keep the lips moist and prevent further irritation caused by the yeast infection.
The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinsons disease has prepared a plan of care that would include what goal?
- A. Promoting effective communication
- B. Controlling diarrhea
- C. Preventing cognitive decline
- D. Managing choreiform movements
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients diagnosed with Parkinson's disease often experience speech and communication difficulties due to the effects of the disease on the muscles involved in speech production. This can manifest as soft, slurred speech or difficulty articulating words. Therefore, promoting effective communication would be an essential goal in the plan of care for a patient with Parkinson's disease. This goal may involve strategies such as speech therapy, communication devices, or providing a conducive environment to facilitate clearer communication between the patient and healthcare providers. By focusing on promoting effective communication, the nurse can help improve the patient's quality of life and enhance their ability to express their needs and concerns.
A male patient with a metastatic brain tumor is having a generalized seizure and begins vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Perform oral suctioning.
- B. Page the physician.
- C. Insert a tongue depressor into the patients mouth.
- D. Turn the patient on his side.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure and begins vomiting, the priority action for the nurse is to turn the patient onto their side. This position helps to prevent aspiration, which can occur when the patient inhales vomit into their lungs. Turning the patient on their side allows for the vomit to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration and maintaining a clear airway. Performing oral suctioning would be necessary after turning the patient on their side, but it is not the initial priority in this situation. Paging the physician and inserting a tongue depressor are not appropriate actions during a seizure and vomiting episode.
While assessing the patient at the beginning of the shift, the nurse inspects a surgical dressing covering the operative site after the patients cervical diskectomy. The nurse notes that the drainage is 75% saturated with serosanguineous discharge. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
- A. Page the physician and report this sign of infection.
- B. Reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours.
- C. Reposition the patient to prevent further hemorrhage.
- D. Inform the surgeon of the possibility of a dural leak.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when observing the surgical dressing saturated with serosanguineous drainage is to reinforce the dressing and reassess in 1 to 2 hours. Serosanguineous discharge is a common type of drainage following surgery, as it is a mixture of blood and serum. It is expected in the early stages of wound healing and does not necessarily indicate infection. By reinforcing the dressing and closely monitoring the drainage over the next couple of hours, the nurse can assess if the amount of drainage is decreasing or escalating. If there are any signs of infection, such as increasing redness, warmth, swelling, or excessive purulent discharge, then the nurse should notify the physician promptly. Until then, it is appropriate to continue observing and managing the drainage within the expected range.
A nurse is explaining to the nursing students working on the antepartum unit how to assess for edema. Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area? N R I G B.C M U S N T O
- A. +1
- B. +2
- C. +3
- D. 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edema of the extremities, face, and sacral area is classified as +3 edema. Edema classified as
+1 indicates minimal edema of the lower extremities. Marked edema of the lower extremities
is +2 edema. Generalized massive edema (+4) includes the accumulation of fluid in the
peritoneal cavity.