Nokea
A pregnant client comes into the prenatal clinic accompanied by her spouse. The spouse states they were in a car accident and his wife's abdomen hit the steering wheel. The nurse observes the client wringing her hands and not making eye contact. The client's record shows two recently missed prenatal appointments. Which action does the nurse take?
- A. Make eye contact with the client and ask about the accident.
- B. Accompany the client into the restroom to obtain a urine sample.
- C. Ask the husband if the wife had been drinking alcohol.
- D. Escort the couple to an examining room to await the health care provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Escorting the couple to an examining room prioritizes a safe, private assessment of the client’s condition post-accident, especially given signs of possible abuse (missed appointments, anxiety). Direct questioning or accusations may escalate tension, and a urine sample is not the priority.
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The nurse is giving a client diagnosed with heart failure home care instructions for use after hospital discharge. The client interrupts, saying, 'What's the use? I'll never remember all of this, and I'll probably die anyway!' The nurse determines that the client's statement is most likely due to which psychosocial concern?
- A. Anger about the new medical regimen
- B. The teaching strategies used by the nurse
- C. Insufficient financial resources to pay for the medications
- D. Anxiety about the ability to manage the disease process at home
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anxiety and fear often develop after heart failure, and they can further tax the failing heart. The client's statement is made in the middle of receiving self-care instructions. There is no evidence in the question to support option 1, 2, or 3.
The nurse is admitting a client with schizophrenia. The client is extremely socially withdrawn, is unable to perform activities of daily living, has an inappropriate affect, and has grimacing mannerisms. The nurse understands that this client is experiencing which type of schizophrenia?
- A. residual schizophrenia
- B. paranoid schizophrenia
- C. catatonic schizophrenia
- D. disorganized schizophrenia
- E. undifferentiated schizophrenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Disorganized schizophrenia is characterized by inappropriate affect, social withdrawal, grimacing, and impaired daily functioning.
Which psychosocial factor obtained during an assessment of an older client places the client most at risk for abuse?
- A. The client resides in an apartment in a low-income neighborhood.
- B. The client shows several signs and symptoms of clinical depression.
- C. The client is completely dependent on family members for both food and medicine.
- D. The client has been diagnosed with and is being treated for several chronic illnesses.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elder abuse is sometimes the result of frustrated adult children who find themselves caring for dependent parents. Increasing demands by parents for care and financial support can cause resentment and a feeling of being burdened. The issues of abuse are not bound to socioeconomic status (option 1). Option 2 relates to depression rather than the risk for abuse. Option 4 relates to a physical factor rather than a psychosocial factor.
A client with the diagnosis of mania is placed in a seclusion room after an outburst of violent behavior that involved a physical assault on another client. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care before seclusion?
- A. Ask the client if she understands why the seclusion is necessary.
- B. Remain silent because verbal interaction would be too stimulating.
- C. Tell the client that she will be allowed to come out when she can behave.
- D. Inform the client that she is being secluded to help regain her self-control.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Seclusion is a process in which a client is placed alone in a specially designed room for protection and close supervision. This client is removed to a nonstimulating environment as a result of her behavior. Options 1, 2, and 3 are nontherapeutic actions. Additionally, option 2 implies punishment. It is best to directly inform the client of the purpose of the seclusion.
A client diagnosed with moderate dementia is prescribed oral anticoagulant therapy while hospitalized. The nurse identifies which discharge scenario as being the best support system for successful anticoagulant therapy monitoring?
- A. The client has a home health aide coming to the house for 9 weeks.
- B. The client was going to stay with a daughter in the daughter's home indefinitely.
- C. The client was going to have blood work drawn in the home by a local laboratory.
- D. The client has a good friend living next door who would take the client to the doctor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client taking anticoagulant therapy should be informed about the medication, its purpose, and the necessity of taking the proper dose at the specified times. If the client is unwilling or unable to comply with the medication regimen, the continuance of the regimen should be questioned. Option 2 provides a direct support system. Clients may need support systems in place to enhance compliance with therapy. Option 1 facilitates reminding the client to take the medication, option 3 facilitates blood work only, and option 4 facilitates medical care.