A pregnant woman at 22 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The physician orders doxycycline (Vibramycin). The nurse should first:
- A. Inform the client about the effects of the drug.
- B. Make sure the record notes that the baby must receive eyedrops when born.
- C. Have the physician add a single dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
- D. Discuss with the physician the need to change the order.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risks to the fetus. The nurse should discuss changing the order to a safer alternative, such as ceftriaxone, which is recommended for gonorrhea in pregnancy.
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The nurse inserting an oropharyngeal airway into an assigned client should plan to use which insertion procedure?
- A. Flexing the client's neck
- B. Leaving dentures in place
- C. Suctioning the client's mouth only if prescribed
- D. Inserting the airway with the tip pointed upward
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The airway is inserted with the tip pointed upward and is then rotated downward once the flange has reached the client's teeth. The client should be positioned supine, with the neck hyperextended if possible. Before insertion of an oropharyngeal airway, any dentures or partial plates should be removed from the client's mouth. After insertion, the client's mouth is suctioned every hour or as necessary. The airway is removed for inspection of the mouth every 2 to 4 hours.
A client with a history of anxiety is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). The nurse should teach the client that the medication:
- A. Takes 2 to 4 weeks to be effective
- B. Causes immediate sedation
- C. Is taken as needed for panic attacks
- D. May cause weight loss
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Buspirone requires 2 to 4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects for anxiety, unlike benzodiazepines, which act quickly.
The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte levels of a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is a common cause of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypomagnesemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia enhances digoxin's effect on the heart, increasing toxicity risk by altering cardiac membrane potential.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication:
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before breakfast
- D. After exercise
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ranitidine, an H2 receptor blocker, is most effective when taken at bedtime to reduce nighttime acid production and promote ulcer healing.
The nurse is administering a dose of ondansetron hydrochloride to a client for nausea and vomiting. Which frequent side effect of this medication should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Blurred vision
- C. A warm feeling
- D. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ondansetron hydrochloride is a selective receptor antagonist used as an antinausea and antiemetic. Frequent side effects include anxiety, drowsiness, dizziness, headache, fatigue, constipation, diarrhea, urinary retention, and hypoxia. Occasional side effects include abdominal pain, diminished saliva secretion, fever, feeling cold, paresthesia, and weakness. Rare side effects include hypersensitivity reaction and blurred vision.
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