Nokea
A pregnant woman presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. On examination, cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness are noted. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Ovarian torsion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is the most likely cause of the symptoms described in the pregnant woman. PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, typically caused by sexually transmitted bacteria like Chlamydia or Gonorrhea. The classic presentation includes lower abdominal pain, fever, vaginal discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and bilateral adnexal tenderness on examination. This condition can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, including infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and manage PID promptly, especially in pregnant women, to prevent adverse outcomes.
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The patient asks what is a normal thyroid state? The best response is __________.
- A. Euthyroid
- B. Hyperthyroid
- C. Parathyroid
- D. Panthroid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A normal thyroid state is referred to as euthyroid, which means the thyroid gland is functioning within normal parameters and the levels of thyroid hormones in the body are balanced. In contrast, hyperthyroid refers to an overactive thyroid gland, causing excessive production of thyroid hormones, while parathyroid is a different gland responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body. Panthroid is not a recognized medical term related to thyroid function. Therefore, the best response to the patient's question about the normal thyroid state is "Euthyroid."
A woman in active labor is experiencing persistent occiput posterior position despite position changes. What nursing intervention is most appropriate to facilitate fetal rotation?
- A. Encourage the mother to remain in a side-lying position.
- B. Assist the mother into a hands-and-knees position.
- C. Administer intravenous oxytocin to augment contractions.
- D. Perform manual rotation of the fetus during vaginal examination.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate fetal rotation in a woman experiencing persistent occiput posterior position is to assist the mother into a hands-and-knees position. This position can help encourage the baby to rotate into the optimal occiput anterior position for delivery. By being on her hands and knees, gravity can assist in aiding the rotation of the baby. This position can also help relieve pressure on the mother's back and potentially reduce discomfort during labor. Additionally, hands-and-knees position can help open up the pelvis and create more space for the baby to turn. It is a non-invasive and generally well-tolerated intervention to promote fetal rotation in labor.
The unit manager the planning to take her regular official business leave for the year. She has written a letter of recommendation to her Immediate supervisor for her assistant unit manager to assume her position while she is on leave. This is an example of delegation by _____.
- A. rank
- B. authority
- C. succession
- D. authority
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation by succession is the act of assigning a specific task or responsibility to someone temporarily while the usual person in charge is absent or unavailable. In this scenario, the unit manager is delegating her responsibilities to her assistant unit manager while she is on leave, indicating a temporary transfer of duties. This allows for a smooth continuity of operations within the unit during the manager's absence.
While preparing the surgical instruments for sterilization, the nurse notices visible residue on some of the instruments. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Re-sterilize the instruments
- B. Use the instruments for the procedure as they are
- C. Document the findings in the instrument log
- D. Notify the sterile processing department
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If visible residue is noticed on the surgical instruments, it is crucial to re-sterilize them before using them for any procedure. Visible residue may indicate that the instruments are not sterile and could potentially introduce contaminants into the patient during the procedure, leading to infection or other complications. It is essential to maintain the highest standards of cleanliness and sterility in healthcare settings to ensure patient safety. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action to re-sterilize the instruments before proceeding with any surgical procedure.
A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and compressive symptoms such as difficulty swallowing and breathing. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals colloid nodules. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
- B. Graves' disease
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Thyroid nodules
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thyroid nodules are abnormal growths of thyroid cells that form a lump within the thyroid gland. When a thyroid nodule becomes large enough, it can cause compressive symptoms such as difficulty swallowing and breathing. The presence of colloid nodules on fine-needle aspiration biopsy indicates a benign and common type of thyroid nodule. In this case, the symptoms are likely due to the physical pressure exerted by the thyroid nodule, rather than an underlying endocrine disorder like Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Graves' disease, or diabetes mellitus. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms is the thyroid nodule itself.