A primary care NP is preparing to prescribe a fluoroquinolone for a patient who has a history of alcohol abuse that has caused liver damage. The NP should choose:
- A. norfloxacin.
- B. levofloxacin.
- C. gemifloxacin.
- D. ciprofloxacin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because levofloxacin has lower hepatic risk, safer for liver-damaged patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect (higher hepatic risk).
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An 86-year-old patient is seen in clinic for a scheduled follow-up after starting a new oral medication 1 month prior. The patient reports no change in symptoms, and a laboratory test reveals a subtherapeutic serum drug level. The NP caring for this patient should:
- A. consider ordering more frequent dosing of the drug.
- B. titrate the patient's dose upward and recheck in 1 month.
- C. ask the patient about any increased frequency of bowel movements.
- D. determine the number of pills left in the patient's prescription bottle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because elderly patients often have adherence issues due to cost or confusion, so checking pill count assesses compliance before adjusting dose. Choice A is incorrect as frequency isn’t the first step. Choice B is wrong since dose increase without compliance check is premature. Choice C is inaccurate as bowel changes aren’t the primary concern.
A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call a code blue.
- B. Call the healthcare provider.
- C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
- D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.
Michael calls the clinic to ask about taking fish oil supplements with his simvastatin prescription. The NP's response is:
- A. Avoid fish oil as it will increase your risk of bleeding.
- B. There are no known interactions; it is safe to take fish oil with simvastatin.
- C. Avoid fish oil as it will decrease the effectiveness of the simvastatin.
- D. Fish oil should only be taken with simvastatin if prescribed by your cardiologist.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because fish oil (omega-3s) and simvastatin both lower triglycerides with no significant interactions; studies show they're safe together, enhancing lipid benefits. Choice A is incorrect as fish oil's bleeding risk is minimal and not amplified by simvastatin. Choice C is wrong because fish oil doesn't reduce simvastatin's efficacy—they're complementary. Choice D is incorrect since no prescription is needed for this safe combination.
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.
A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?
- A. Smoking history
- B. Recent exposure to allergens
- C. History of recent insect bites
- D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.