Nokea
An 86-year-old patient is seen in clinic for a scheduled follow-up after starting a new oral medication 1 month prior. The patient reports no change in symptoms, and a laboratory test reveals a subtherapeutic serum drug level. The NP caring for this patient should:
- A. consider ordering more frequent dosing of the drug.
- B. titrate the patient's dose upward and recheck in 1 month.
- C. ask the patient about any increased frequency of bowel movements.
- D. determine the number of pills left in the patient's prescription bottle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because elderly patients often have adherence issues due to cost or confusion, so checking pill count assesses compliance before adjusting dose. Choice A is incorrect as frequency isn’t the first step. Choice B is wrong since dose increase without compliance check is premature. Choice C is inaccurate as bowel changes aren’t the primary concern.
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What should be the nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Have the client sit down
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram
- D. Apply oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk is to have the client sit down. Sitting down reduces the workload on the heart and may alleviate pain by improving oxygen supply. This action aims to reduce the strain on the heart and improve oxygen delivery to the myocardium, which can help relieve the symptoms of angina pectoris. Administering nitroglycerin could be the next step after having the client sit down if the pain persists. Obtaining an electrocardiogram and applying oxygen are not the immediate priority actions when dealing with angina pectoris symptoms.
What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
A CNM:
- A. may treat only women.
- B. has prescriptive authority in all 50 states.
- C. may administer only drugs used during labor and delivery.
- D. may practice only in birthing centers and home birth settings.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because CNMs have prescriptive authority in all 50 states. Choice A is incorrect as they can treat partners for STDs. Choice C is wrong since their authority isn’t limited to labor drugs. Choice D is inaccurate as they practice in various settings.
A primary care NP is preparing to prescribe a fluoroquinolone for a patient who has a history of alcohol abuse that has caused liver damage. The NP should choose:
- A. norfloxacin.
- B. levofloxacin.
- C. gemifloxacin.
- D. ciprofloxacin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because levofloxacin has lower hepatic risk, safer for liver-damaged patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect (higher hepatic risk).
The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of enalapril is hypotension, not hypertension (choice A), tachycardia (choice C), or hyperglycemia (choice D). Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications.