Nokea
A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?
- A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
- B. On the left side with legs elevated.
- C. On the right side with legs elevated.
- D. Prone with head elevated.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.
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The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
- C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
- D. Pain at the surgical site.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.
When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which action should the nurse take first when performing tracheostomy care?
- A. Remove the inner cannula.
- B. Clean the stoma with normal saline.
- C. Change the tracheostomy ties.
- D. Suction the tracheostomy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority action because it ensures a patent airway before proceeding with any other tracheostomy care interventions. This step helps clear secretions and maintain airway patency, which is crucial for the client's respiratory status. Removing the inner cannula, cleaning the stoma, or changing the tracheostomy ties can follow once the airway is clear. Therefore, options A, B, and C are secondary actions compared to suctioning the tracheostomy.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a client with a central venous catheter. Which action is most important?
- A. Flush the catheter with heparin.
- B. Change the dressing at the insertion site.
- C. Check for blood return before administering the antibiotic.
- D. Use sterile technique when accessing the catheter.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using sterile technique when accessing the catheter is crucial to prevent infection in clients with a central venous catheter. This action helps maintain asepsis and reduces the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter system. Flushing the catheter with heparin helps prevent occlusion but is not as crucial as ensuring sterile technique. Changing the dressing at the insertion site is important for assessing the site's condition but does not directly impact the administration of the antibiotic. Checking for blood return is essential to ensure proper catheter function, but sterile technique takes precedence to prevent infections.
A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce childhood obesity. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?
- A. increased participation in physical activities
- B. higher attendance at nutrition education sessions
- C. reduced rates of childhood obesity
- D. greater knowledge of healthy eating habits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.
The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?
- A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
- D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.