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A provider has ordered diagnostic procedures for a couple with suspected infertility. Which test is useful for determining if ovulation has occurred?
- A. FSH level
- B. Progesterone level
- C. Estrogen level
- D. Vaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone level. Progesterone is released after ovulation, indicating that ovulation has occurred. Monitoring progesterone levels can confirm ovulation timing. FSH (A) is more related to ovarian reserve. Estrogen (C) levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle. Vaginal ultrasound (D) can visualize ovarian follicles but does not confirm ovulation.
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The nurse in a genetic clinic interviews a couple and develops a pedigree chart. Which inheritance patterns does the pedigree chart portray?
- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. X-linked recessive
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. X-linked dominant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Autosomal dominant. In an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, the trait is passed down from generation to generation, affecting both males and females equally. This is indicated by the presence of the trait in every generation of the pedigree chart. In contrast, autosomal recessive traits would skip generations and require both parents to be carriers. X-linked recessive traits mainly affect males and skip generations. X-linked dominant traits would be present in every generation but would affect more females than males.
When assessing cervical effacement of a client in labor, the nurse assesses which characteristic?
- A. extent of opening to its widest diameter
- B. degree of thinning
- C. passage of the mucous plug
- D. fetal presenting part
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical effacement refers to the degree of thinning of the cervix, not the extent of opening. This assessment is important in determining progress in labor. The other options are not related to cervical effacement.
A client's amniocentesis results were reported as 46, XY. Her obstetrician informed her at the time that everything 'looks good.' Shortly after birth the baby is diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following responses will explain this result?
- A. It is likely that the client received the wrong amniocentesis results.
- B. Cerebral palsy is not a genetic disease.
- C. The genes that cause cerebral palsy have not yet been discovered.
- D. The genetics lab failed to test for cerebral palsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral palsy is not typically caused by genetic factors.
Which instruction by the nurse should be included in the teaching plan for an infertile woman who has been shown to have a 28-day biphasic menstrual cycle?
- A. Douche with a cider vinegar solution immediately before having intercourse.
- B. Schedule intercourse every day from day 8 to day 14 of the menstrual cycle.
- C. Be placed on follicle-stimulating hormone therapy by the fertility specialist.
- D. Assess the basal body temperature pattern for at least 6 more months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intercourse during the fertile window (days 8–14 in a 28-day cycle) maximizes conception chances.
What is the role of hCG injections in fertility treatments?
- A. To prevent ovulation during stimulation cycles.
- B. To trigger the release of mature eggs from the ovary.
- C. To enhance the quality of embryos for transfer.
- D. To suppress uterine contractions post-implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To trigger the release of mature eggs from the ovary. hCG injections are commonly used in fertility treatments to induce ovulation by mimicking the hormone LH, which triggers the release of mature eggs from the ovary. This is crucial for assisted reproductive techniques like in vitro fertilization.
A: Incorrect. hCG injections do not prevent ovulation; instead, they promote it.
C: Incorrect. hCG injections do not directly enhance the quality of embryos.
D: Incorrect. hCG injections are not used to suppress uterine contractions post-implantation; they are primarily for ovulation induction.