Nokea
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?
- A. Retinal detachment
- B. Corneal ulcer
- C. Acute glaucoma
- D. Uveitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by a retinal detachment. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position. This can lead to visual disturbances, including sudden loss of vision in one eye. Retinal detachment can be a medical emergency and requires prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent permanent vision loss. Other conditions mentioned in the choices, such as corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis, may also cause vision problems but are less likely to present with a sudden and painless unilateral vision loss as a primary symptom.
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His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His cardiac examination is normal. On examination of his chest, the diameter seems enlarged. Breath sounds are decreased throughout all lobes. Rhonchi are heard over all lung fields. There is no area of dullness and no increased or decreased fremitus. What thorax or lung disorder is most likely causing his symptoms?
- A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
- B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- C. Asthma
- D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with an enlarged chest diameter, decreased breath sounds throughout all lobes, and the presence of rhonchi over all lung fields is suggestive of a chronic condition that affects the entire respiratory system. These findings are classic for COPD, a progressive lung disease characterized by airflow limitation. The breath sounds are decreased due to airflow obstruction, and the presence of rhonchi indicates mucus production and airway inflammation commonly seen in COPD. In contrast, a spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, often in a younger patient with risk factors such as smoking. Asthma would present with wheezing, shortness of breath, and possibly a history of atopy or allergies. Pneumonia would typically present with fever, cough, and focal findings on chest examination, such as crackles or bronchial breath sounds over a consolidated area. In
His abdominal examination is normal. Visualization of the anus shows no masses, inflammation, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a warm, boggy, tender prostate. No discrete masses are felt and there is no blood on the glove. The scrotum and penis appear normal. Urinalysis shows moderate amounts of white blood cells and bacteria. What disorder of the anus, prostate, or rectum best describes this situation?
- A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- B. Prostatitis
- C. Prostate cancer
- D. Epididymitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prostatitis is the most likely disorder based on the symptoms described. The warm, boggy, tender prostate upon digital rectal examination, along with the presence of moderate white blood cells and bacteria in the urinalysis, suggests an inflammatory condition of the prostate. In this case, there are no signs of masses or blood in the rectal examination, which would be more indicative of prostate cancer. Epididymitis typically presents with symptoms involving the scrotum and may be associated with testicular pain and swelling, which are not described in this scenario. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland that typically presents with symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia, rather than the inflammatory signs seen in this case.
A 72-year-old teacher comes to a skilled nursing facility for rehabilitation after being in the hospital for 6 weeks. She was treated for sepsis and respiratory failure and had to be on the ventilator for 3 weeks. You are completing your initial assessment and are evaluating her skin condition. On her sacrum there is full-thickness skin loss that is 5 cm in diameter, with damage to the subcutaneous tissue. The underlying muscle is not affected. You diagnose this as a pressure ulcer. What is the stage of this ulcer?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A stage 3 pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with damage and necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue, but the underlying muscle is not affected. In this case, the description of the full-thickness skin loss with involvement of the subcutaneous tissue but not the muscle corresponds to a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Stage 1 involves intact skin with non-blanchable redness, stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open ulcer, and stage 4 involves full-thickness tissue loss with the involvement of muscle, bone, or supporting structures.
You are excited about a positive test finding you have just noticed on physical examination of your patient. You go on to do more examination, laboratory work, and diagnostic tests, only to find that there is no sign of the disease you thought would correlate with the finding. This same experience happens several times. What should you conclude?
- A. Consider not doing this test routinely.
- B. Use this test when you have a higher suspicion for a certain correlating condition.
- C. Continue using the test, perhaps doing less laboratory work and diagnostics.
- D. Omit this test from future examinations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The repeated scenario of finding a positive test result that does not correlate with the suspected disease indicates a lack of specificity for the test in question. In such cases, it is important to use the test when there is a higher suspicion for a specific condition that is known to correlate with the finding. By using the test selectively in situations where it is more likely to provide accurate information, its utility can be maximized and unnecessary further workup can be avoided. This approach allows for a more targeted and efficient use of resources in the diagnostic process.
Jenny is one of your favorite patients who usually shares a joke with you and is nattily dressed. Today she is dressed in old jeans, lacks makeup, and avoids eye contact. To what do you attribute these changes?
- A. She is lacking sleep.
- B. She is fatigued from work.
- C. She is running into financial difficulty.
- D. She is depressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The changes in Jenny's appearance and behavior, such as wearing old jeans, lack of makeup, and avoiding eye contact, are suggestive of potential signs of depression. When a person is feeling depressed, they may lose interest in their appearance, have changes in sleep patterns leading to fatigue, and exhibit avoidance behaviors like avoiding eye contact. It is essential to approach Jenny with empathy and offer support as depression can significantly impact one's well-being and daily functioning. It would be beneficial for Jenny to seek professional help and guidance to address any underlying issues causing her to feel this way.