A tender, painful swelling of the scrotum should suggest which of the following?
- A. Acute epididymitis
- B. Strangulated inguinal hernia
- C. Torsion of the spermatic cord
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tender, painful swelling of the scrotum is a common symptom of acute epididymitis, which is the inflammation of the epididymis. The epididymis is a tube located at the back of the testicle that stores and transports sperm. In acute epididymitis, the swelling is usually accompanied by pain, tenderness, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Other symptoms may include fever, chills, and discharge from the penis. Prompt medical evaluation and treatment are necessary to prevent complications such as abscess formation or chronic epididymitis. Strangulated inguinal hernia and torsion of the spermatic cord may present with severe pain and swelling in the scrotum, but they have distinct mechanisms and require different management approaches.
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Mr. Jackson is a 50-year-old African-American who has had discomfort between his scrotum and anus. He also has had some fevers and dysuria. Your rectal examination is halted by tenderness anteriorly, but no frank mass is palpable. What is your most likely diagnosis?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Colon cancer
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Colonic polyp
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is prostatitis. Prostatitis is the inflammation or infection of the prostate gland, which can cause symptoms such as discomfort between the scrotum and anus (perineum), fevers, and dysuria (painful urination). The tenderness anteriorly during rectal examination is consistent with prostatitis as the prostate gland is located in front of the rectum and can be tender to touch when inflamed. Prostate cancer typically presents with symptoms such as urinary frequency, nocturia, hematuria, or bone pain, and is less likely to cause the symptoms described in this scenario. Colon cancer and colonic polyps are less likely as they would not typically cause discomfort in the perineal area or dysuria.
A patient is examined with the ophthalmoscope and found to have red reflexes bilaterally. Which of the following have you essentially excluded from your differential?
- A. Retinoblastoma
- B. Cataract
- C. Artificial eye
- D. Hypertensive retinopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Retinoblastoma typically presents with a white reflex, known as leukocoria or a cat's eye reflex, instead of the normal red reflex seen during ophthalmoscopy. The presence of red reflexes bilaterally in this case essentially rules out retinoblastoma as a differential diagnosis.
To hear a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary?
- A. Asking the patient to hold her breath
- B. Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV
- C. Checking your stethoscope for air leaks
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To hear a soft murmur or bruit clearly, it is important to minimize any background noise or distractions that may interfere with your ability to auscultate effectively. Therefore, asking the patient to hold her breath (choice A) can help reduce noise caused by the patient's respiration. Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV (choice B) can also help eliminate external noise that may disrupt your ability to hear subtle sounds. Checking your stethoscope for air leaks (choice C) is crucial to ensure that you are hearing sounds accurately and not being affected by any equipment issues. By combining these strategies, you can create an optimal environment for listening to soft murmurs or bruits.
Which area of the arm drains to the epitrochlear nodes?
- A. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and ulnar middle finger
- B. Radial surface of the forearm and hand, thumb and index fingers, and radial middle finger
- C. Ulnar surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
- D. Radial surface of the forearm and hand; second, third, and fourth fingers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The area of the arm that drains to the epitrochlear nodes includes the ulnar surface of the forearm and hand, little and ring fingers, and the ulnar side of the middle finger. The epitrochlear nodes are located in the medial aspect of the arm above the elbow, close to the insertion of the biceps brachii muscle. These nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the above-mentioned areas and play a role in the immune response against infections in these regions.
It started a few hours ago, and she has noted nausea with sensitivity to light; she has had headaches like this in the past, usually less than one per week, but not as severe. She does not know of any inciting factors. There has been no change in the frequency of her headaches. She usually takes an over- the-counter analgesic, and this results in resolution of the headache. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis of the type of headache?
- A. Tension
- B. Migraine
- C. Cluster
- D. Analgesic rebound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of the headache as starting a few hours ago, associated with nausea, sensitivity to light, and being severe in intensity suggests a migraine headache. Migraine headaches are often accompanied by these symptoms, known as migraine features. The fact that the patient experiences headaches like this less than once a week and typically uses over-the-counter analgesics to relieve them is also suggestive of migraines. Tension headaches typically present as a more mild to moderate, band-like pressure around the head, without the associated symptoms of nausea and sensitivity to light. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain around one eye, often accompanied by other symptoms like redness or tearing in the eye. Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications and typically present as daily headaches that improve with the same medication that caused them in the first place.
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