Nokea
A supervisor is restricting the flow of communication between staff. This has resulted in the staff having two very opposite directions. The supervisor's actions are known as which type of force?
- A. Opposing force
- B. Driving force
- C. Restraining force
- D. Restrictive force
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restraining force. In this scenario, the supervisor's actions of restricting communication act as a restraining force, hindering the flow of information and causing conflicting directions among the staff. A restraining force limits the ability of individuals or groups to achieve their goals by imposing obstacles or constraints. Opposing force (A) implies a force in direct opposition, which is not the case here. Driving force (B) typically motivates action rather than restricts it. Restrictive force (D) is similar to restraining force but lacks the specific connotation of limiting communication in this context.
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Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?
- A. Blood pressure screening
- B. Administering medications
- C. Developing a care plan
- D. Providing rehabilitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat diseases early to prevent complications.
2. Blood pressure screening helps identify individuals at risk for hypertension-related issues.
3. Early detection through screening allows for timely interventions to prevent further health problems.
4. Administering medications, developing a care plan, and providing rehabilitation are tertiary prevention activities focused on managing existing conditions rather than early detection.
Summary:
Blood pressure screening is the correct example of a secondary prevention activity as it focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health issues. Administering medications, developing a care plan, and providing rehabilitation are not considered secondary prevention activities as they are more related to managing existing conditions.
According to Maslow's theory, which level of needs must be met first?
- A. Self-actualization needs
- B. Esteem needs
- C. Safety needs
- D. Physiological needs
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physiological needs. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs such as food, water, shelter, and sleep must be met first as they are the most basic and essential for survival. Without satisfying physiological needs, an individual cannot move on to fulfilling higher-level needs. Esteem needs, self-actualization needs, and safety needs come after physiological needs are met. It is crucial to prioritize physiological needs before addressing other levels of needs to ensure overall well-being and self-actualization.
A manager is prioritizing the following issues. Of the following issues, which should be considered urgent and important?
- A. The manager of physical therapy calls and complains about inappropriate behaviors of one of the staff nurses with one of his therapists.
- B. A staff nurse reports a pattern of malfunctioning IV pumps on the unit during her current shift, resulting in overdosing of medications.
- C. One of the staff nurses, who would have been an extra nurse for the next shift, calls in sick.
- D. A small group of staff nurses request a meeting to discuss initiating a scheduling committee.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it involves patient safety. Malfunctioning IV pumps leading to medication overdosing can result in serious harm to patients. This issue requires immediate attention to prevent any further harm.
A: Inappropriate behaviors, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to patient safety.
C: A nurse calling in sick, though inconvenient, can be managed through staffing adjustments and contingency plans.
D: Scheduling committee discussions are important but can be scheduled at a later time without immediate harm to patients.
A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?
- A. Lispro (Humalog)
- B. Glargine (Lantus)
- C. Detemir (Levemir)
- D. NPH (Humulin N)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lispro (Humalog). Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is ideal for mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy because it mimics the body's natural insulin response after a meal, providing quick and effective blood sugar control. Lispro has a rapid onset of action, peaks quickly, and has a shorter duration of action compared to other types of insulin. This makes it suitable for covering the rise in blood sugar levels that occurs after meals.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin used for basal coverage, not for mealtime coverage.
C: Detemir (Levemir) is an intermediate-acting insulin used for basal coverage, not for mealtime coverage.
D: NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin with a slower onset and longer duration of action, making it less suitable for mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy.
A female patient is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test. Which information from the
patient’s health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care
provider?
- A. The patient uses oral contraceptives.
- B. The patient runs several days a week.
- C. The patient has been pregnant three times
- D. The patient has a family history of diabetes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient uses oral contraceptives. This information is important because oral contraceptives can affect glucose tolerance test results. The hormones in oral contraceptives can impact insulin sensitivity, potentially leading to inaccurate test results. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this as it may influence the interpretation of the test.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: The patient runs several days a week - This information is not directly relevant to the oral glucose tolerance test and does not impact the test results.
C: The patient has been pregnant three times - While pregnancy can affect glucose tolerance, the current pregnancy status of the patient is not as pertinent as the use of oral contraceptives in this specific context.
D: The patient has a family history of diabetes - Although family history is a risk factor for diabetes, it is not as immediately relevant to the oral glucose tolerance test as the use of oral contraceptives.