Nokea
A supervisor observes inconsistency in the psychiatric-mental health nurse's behavior toward a patient; the nurse is unreasonably concerned, overly kind, or irrationally hostile. The most appropriate explanation is that the nurse is displaying:
- A. countertransference
- B. empathic resonance
- C. splitting behavior
- D. transference
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Countertransference involves the nurse's emotional reactions to the patient based on personal unconscious feelings, leading to inconsistent behavior.
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The term schizophrenia can be interpreted to mean
- A. a split between thought and emotion
- B. having more than one personality
- C. the same thing as a dissociative reaction
- D. that a person is insane
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schizophrenia's etymology suggests a 'split mind,' referring to fragmented thought-emotion processes.
A client has been diagnosed with a dementia secondary to cerebral disease. The family members note the client 'has not been as sharp as he once was' and that he has developed urinary incontinence and a gait disturbance. They attributed the first symptom to normal aging but were alarmed by the latter two symptoms. Based on this history, which of the following should come to mind?
- A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Hepatic disease
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The client presents with urinary incontinence and a gait disturbance, suggestive of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) due to cerebral disease.
Step 2: NPH is characterized by the triad of cognitive decline, gait disturbances, and urinary incontinence.
Step 3: Symptoms of NPH can mimic normal aging but are distinct from other conditions.
Step 4: Vitamin B12 deficiency (B) primarily presents with anemia and neurological symptoms, not the triad seen in NPH.
Step 5: Hepatic disease (C) typically presents with symptoms related to liver dysfunction, not the triad of NPH.
Step 6: Tuberculosis (D) manifests with respiratory symptoms and constitutional symptoms, not the cognitive decline and gait issues seen in NPH.
An elderly woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter. The client states that she has had a cold for several days. Her daughter states that her mother has been confused about when her routine medications are to be taken and that her mother has never experienced confusion about her medications before. Based on this information, it is important that the nurse ask the client whether:
- A. There is a history of mental illness in the family
- B. She has been given a diagnosis of a mental health disorder in the past
- C. She can recall her last visit to a physician
- D. She has taken any over-the-counter medications for her cold
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She has taken any over-the-counter medications for her cold. It is important for the nurse to ask this question because over-the-counter medications can sometimes interact with prescription medications, leading to confusion or other cognitive issues in elderly patients. By identifying any OTC medications the client has taken, the nurse can assess potential drug interactions that may be contributing to the confusion.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. History of mental illness in the family or a previous diagnosis of mental health disorder may not directly address the current issue of confusion related to medication management. Asking about the last visit to a physician is also less relevant compared to inquiring about current medication use for a potential cause of confusion.
Which measure is critical to achieving desired outcomes in the nurse-client relationship? The nurse:
- A. develops trust in the client.
- B. uses autodiagnosis.
- C. relies on the client liking the nurse rather than limit-setting to achieve structure.
- D. analyzes the relationships among biologic, familial, and sociocultural factors that contributed to the client's disorder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: uses autodiagnosis. Autodiagnosis is critical in the nurse-client relationship as it involves self-awareness and reflection by the nurse to understand their own biases, emotions, and reactions. This self-awareness allows the nurse to effectively manage their responses, maintain professionalism, and provide quality care to the client. By being aware of their own thoughts and feelings, nurses can better empathize with the client, build trust, and communicate effectively. This approach helps prevent potential conflicts and misunderstandings, leading to better outcomes in the nurse-client relationship.
Summary:
A: Developing trust in the client is important but not the most critical measure.
C: Relying on the client liking the nurse is not professional and may compromise boundaries.
D: Analyzing biologic, familial, and sociocultural factors is important but not as critical as self-awareness through autodiagnosis.
A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. This is because the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning indicates a break from reality, a hallmark of psychosis in schizophrenia. This demonstrates disorganized and illogical thinking, a key symptom of disturbed thinking. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Altered mood states typically refer to emotional disturbances, which are not the primary deficit in this scenario; C) Social isolation is a consequence of the client's symptoms but not the primary deficit; D) Poor impulse control is not the primary deficit in this case as the client's behavior is more indicative of disorganized thinking.