Critical Care Nursing Questions

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A triage nurse in a busy emergency department (ED) assesses a patient who complains of 7/10 abdominal pain and states, 'I had a temperature of 103.9°F (39.9°C) at home.' The nurse’s first action should be to:

  • A. Assess the patient’s current vital signs.
  • B. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) per agency protocol.
  • C. Ask the patient to provide clean-catch urine for urinalysis.
  • D. Tell the patient that it will be 1 to 2 hours before being seen by the doctor.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient's current vital signs. The nurse's first action should be to gather objective data to assess the patient's condition and determine the urgency of the situation. Vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, provide crucial information for the initial assessment. This will help the nurse identify any signs of sepsis, shock, or other serious conditions that require immediate intervention.

The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Giving acetaminophen without assessing the patient's vital signs and determining the cause of the symptoms could mask important clinical information and delay appropriate treatment.
C: While obtaining a urine sample may be necessary later to rule out a urinary tract infection, it is not the most immediate priority in this case.
D: Delaying the patient's assessment and care based on estimated wait times is not appropriate when the patient presents with potentially serious symptoms. Immediate evaluation is required in this scenario.

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The critical care environment is often stressful to a criticalalbyir bil.clo pma/tteiset nt. Identify stressors that are commonly stressful for the critically ill patient. (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Alarms that sound from various devices
  • B. Bright, fluorescent lighting
  • C. Lack of day-night cues
  • D. Sounds from the mechanical ventilator
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarms that sound from various devices. In the critical care environment, alarms often indicate changes in the patient's condition, causing stress. Bright fluorescent lighting (B) may be bothersome but not directly related to patient stress. Lack of day-night cues (C) may disrupt sleep patterns but is not a direct stressor. Sounds from the mechanical ventilator (D) are essential for patient care and not inherently stressful.

Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement’s (IHI’s) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.)

  • A. Interrupt sedation each day to assess readiness to extub aa bit re b.. c om/test
  • B. Maintain head of bed at least 30 degrees elevation.
  • C. Provide deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis.
  • D. Provide prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because interrupting sedation daily to assess readiness to extubate is a key component of IHI's ventilator bundle to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. This practice helps prevent over-sedation, reduce the duration of mechanical ventilation, and decrease the risk of complications. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect as they are not specific components of the IHI's ventilator bundle. Maintaining head of bed elevation, providing deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis, and prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease are important aspects of critical care but are not directly related to the ventilator bundle protocol outlined by IHI.

The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient note s the high pressure alarm sounding but cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm. The nurasbeir bn.cootme/ste stht e patient’s oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

  • A. Ask the respiratory therapist to get a new ventilator
  • B. Call the rapid response team to assess the patient
  • C. Continue to find the cause of the alarm and fix it
  • D. Manually ventilate the patient while calling for a respi ratory therapist
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse's priority is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Calling the rapid response team will allow for immediate assessment by a team of healthcare professionals to address the deteriorating condition. This step takes precedence over troubleshooting the ventilator or manually ventilating the patient. Asking for a new ventilator (A) or manually ventilating the patient (D) does not address the urgent need for a comprehensive assessment and intervention. Continuing to troubleshoot the alarm (C) can delay critical interventions needed for the patient's worsening condition. Thus, calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to address the escalating clinical situation promptly.

A patient’s ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from.60 to.70, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the m ost likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure?

  • A. Decrease in cardiac output
  • B. Hypovolemia
  • C. Increase in venous return
  • D. Oxygen toxicity
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemia. When the ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia by increasing FiO2 and PEEP, it can lead to increased oxygenation but also potentially decrease venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in blood pressure is most likely due to hypovolemia, as the increased PEEP can increase intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and preload, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent decrease in blood pressure. This choice is the most likely cause as the other options (A: Decrease in cardiac output, C: Increase in venous return, D: Oxygen toxicity) do not directly correlate with the changes in ventilator settings described in the question.

The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,

  • A. “It can be used immediately, so the catheter can come out anytime.”
  • B. “It will take 2 to 4 weeks to heal before it can be used.”
  • C. “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.”
  • D. “The fistula was made using graft material, so it depends on the manufacturer.”
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” The rationale for this is that an arteriovenous fistula typically requires 4 to 6 weeks to mature and be ready for use. During this time, the fistula develops the necessary blood flow for efficient dialysis.

Choice A is incorrect because immediate use of the fistula is not recommended as it needs time to mature. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the time needed for the fistula to heal and mature. Choice D is incorrect as the usability of the fistula is not dependent on the manufacturer but rather on the patient's individual healing process.

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