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The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
- A. assess peritoneal dialysate return.
- B. check the patient’s blood sugar.
- C. evaluate the patient’s neurological status.
- D. inform the provider of probable visceral perforation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature suggest a serious complication like visceral perforation.
Step 2: Peritoneal dialysate return assessment won't address the potential life-threatening issue.
Step 3: Checking blood sugar or evaluating neurological status is not relevant to the presenting symptoms.
Step 4: Informing the provider of probable visceral perforation is crucial for prompt intervention and further evaluation.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with severe neurological impairment following a massive stroke. The primary care provider has ordered tests to detearbmirbi.ncoem b/treasit n death. The nurse understands that criteria for brain death includes what crite ria? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Absence of cerebral blood flow.
- B. Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examin ation.
- C. Presents of Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
- D. Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of cerebral blood flow. Brain death is determined by the irreversible cessation of all brain functions, including blood flow to the brain. When there is no cerebral blood flow, the brain is unable to function, leading to brain death. This criterion is essential in diagnosing brain death as it indicates a complete loss of brain function.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
- B: Absence of brainstem reflexes on neurological examination is a common sign of brain death, but it is not the primary criterion.
- C: Presence of Cheyne-Stokes respirations is not indicative of brain death. It is a pattern of breathing that can be seen in various conditions, not specifically brain death.
- D: Confirmation of a flat electroencephalogram is a supportive test for brain death but not the primary criterion. The absence of brain activity on an EEG can help confirm brain death but is not as definitive as the absence of cerebral blood flow.
A patient in the ICU is complaining that he is not sleeping well at night because of anxiety. Which of the following would be the most helpful intervention for the nurse to make?
- A. Provide the patient with a bath immediately following his first 90-minute REM sleep cycle.
- B. Increase the patients pain medication.
- C. Provide the patient with 5 minutes of effleurage and then minimize disruptions.
- D. Monitor the patients brain waves by polysomnography to determine his sleep pattern.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C: Providing the patient with 5 minutes of effleurage (gentle massage) and minimizing disruptions is the most helpful intervention. Effleurage can help reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, improving sleep quality. Minimizing disruptions creates a conducive environment for sleep.
A: Providing a bath after REM sleep may disrupt the patient's sleep cycle, worsening anxiety.
B: Increasing pain medication may not address the root cause of anxiety and could lead to dependency or side effects.
D: Monitoring brain waves with polysomnography is an invasive procedure not typically indicated for managing anxiety-related sleep issues.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the healthcare provider immediately if the patient develops:
- A. Oxygen saturation of 93%.
- B. Respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
- C. Green nasogastric tube drainage.
- D. Increased jugular venous distention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased jugular venous distention. In a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage and on mechanical ventilation, increased jugular venous distention can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately as it may require urgent intervention to prevent further neurological deterioration.
A: Oxygen saturation of 93% is within the acceptable range for a patient on mechanical ventilation and may not require immediate notification.
B: Respirations of 20 breaths/minute are within normal limits for a ventilated patient and do not necessarily indicate a critical condition.
C: Green nasogastric tube drainage may indicate the presence of bile and could be related to gastrointestinal issues, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's neurological status.
Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC),a bthirbe. cpohmy/tessitc ian orders the nurse to obtain a blood sample for mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO ). Which action by the nurse best ensures the obtained value is accurate?
- A. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis following insertion WWWWWW ..TTHHEENNUURRSSIINNGGMMAASSTTEERRYY..CCOOMM
- B. Calibrating the system with a central venous blood sample and arterial blood gas value
- C. Ensuring patency of the catheter using a 0.9% normal asbailrbin.ceo ms/otelsut tion pressurized at 300 mm Hg
- D. Using noncompliant pressure tubing that is no longer t han 36 to 48 inches and has minimal stopcocks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because calibrating the system with central venous and arterial blood samples ensures accuracy of the mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) measurement. This calibration allows for comparison of the values obtained from both sources to confirm the accuracy of the measurement.
Choice A is incorrect because zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis does not directly address the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement.
Choice C is incorrect because ensuring patency of the catheter using normal saline pressurized at 300 mm Hg does not directly impact the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement.
Choice D is incorrect because using noncompliant pressure tubing does not ensure the accuracy of the SvO2 measurement. The length of the tubing and the presence of stopcocks are not directly related to obtaining an accurate SvO2 value.
A nurse observes that a 38-year-old single father whose 11-year-old daughter is in the ICU is struggling to explain to his 6-year-old son the likelihood that the daughter will die. The young boy asks what will happen to his sister when she dies, but the father breaks down in tears and seems unable to respond. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to make?
- A. Suggest that the father contact his pastor, rabbi, or other spiritual leader for counself or him and his son
- B. Sit down with the father and son and share her own religious beliefs
- C. Ask the patients doctor to explain to the father the odds of the daughter surviving
- D. Leave the father and son to grieve alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should suggest that the father contact his spiritual leader for counseling. This option is appropriate as it recognizes the importance of spirituality in coping with difficult situations. It offers emotional support and guidance to the father and his son during a time of crisis.
Option B is incorrect as the nurse sharing her own religious beliefs may not align with the father's beliefs, potentially causing confusion or discomfort.
Option C is not the best intervention, as the doctor's role is primarily medical, and explaining the odds of survival may not address the emotional and spiritual needs of the family.
Option D is also incorrect as leaving the father and son to grieve alone does not provide them with the necessary support and guidance during such a challenging time.