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A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient?
- A. Breast ultrasound
- B. Radiography
- C. Positron emission testing (PET)
- D. Galactography Chapter 59: Male Reproductive: Terminologies PLISSIT Model, Prostate Cancer, Testicular cancer, BPH & Erectile dysfunction (ED)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast ultrasound. Bloody drainage from the nipple can be indicative of various conditions such as breast cancer. A breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that can help visualize any abnormalities in the breast tissue, including masses or tumors. It is commonly used to evaluate breast symptoms like nipple discharge. Radiography (B) is not typically used for evaluating breast conditions. Positron emission testing (PET) (C) is more commonly used in cancer staging and may not be the first-line test for this symptom. Galactography (D) is a specific imaging test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast and may not be the initial test for bloody nipple discharge.
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A patient requests the nurse’s help to the bedside commode and becomes frustrated when unable to void in front of the nurse. How should the nurse interpret the patient’s inability to void?
- A. The patient can be anxious, making it difficult for abdominal and perineal muscles to relax enough to void.
- B. The patient does not recognize the physiological signals that indicate a need to void.
- C. The patient is lonely, and calling the nurse in under false pretenses is a way to get attention.
- D. The patient is not drinking enough fluids to produce adequate urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient can be anxious, making it difficult for abdominal and perineal muscles to relax enough to void.
Rationale: Anxiety can lead to tension in the abdominal and perineal muscles, inhibiting the ability to relax and urinate. The sympathetic nervous system response to anxiety can cause urinary retention. So, the patient's frustration in voiding in front of the nurse may be due to anxiety hindering muscle relaxation.
Summary of other choices:
B: The patient not recognizing physiological signals is less likely as the patient requested assistance to void, indicating awareness of the need to urinate.
C: The patient being lonely and seeking attention is not relevant to the inability to void in front of the nurse.
D: Inadequate fluid intake may contribute to decreased urine output but is not directly related to the inability to void in front of the nurse.
Which data found on a patient’s health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
- B. Recurrent pelvic infections
- C. Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
- D. Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days’ duration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision?
- A. Im planning to avoid exposure to direct sunlight on my next vacation.
- B. Ive never exercised regularly, but Im going to start working out at the gym daily.
- C. Im planning to talk with my pharmacist to review my current medications.
- D. Im certainly going to keep a close eye on my blood pressure from now on.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reviewing current medications with a pharmacist is crucial in understanding potential threats to vision. Some medications can have side effects that impact eye health. This proactive approach shows an understanding of how medication can affect vision.
Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding direct sunlight is important for eye health, it does not address other potential threats. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise, while beneficial for overall health, does not directly relate to understanding threats to vision. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring blood pressure is important for cardiovascular health but does not specifically address threats to vision.
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
- A. For some patients, these recurrent infections constitute an age-related physiologic change.
- B. The patient would benefit from a temporary mobility restriction to facilitate healing.
- C. The patient needs to be assessed for nasopharyngeal cancer.
- D. Blood cultures should be drawn to rule out a systemic infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections.
Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function.
Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media.
Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age.
Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
- A. Ileum
- B. Cecum
- C. Stomach
- D. Duodenum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.