Nokea
A woman has been advised that the reason she has had a number of spontaneous abortions is because she has an inheritable mutation. Which of the following situations is consistent with this statement?
- A. A client developed skin cancer after being exposed to the sun.
- B. A client developed colon cancer from an inherited dominant gene.
- C. A reciprocal translocation was reported on a client's genetic analysis.
- D. A client's left arm failed to develop when she was a fetus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reciprocal translocations can disrupt genes and lead to recurrent miscarriages.
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During preconception counseling, a patient asks about the impact of caffeine on fertility. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe.
- B. Caffeine improves ovulation and increases conception chances.
- C. All caffeine should be eliminated to conceive successfully.
- D. Caffeine intake only affects male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe during preconception as excessive intake may affect fertility.
2. Studies show that moderate caffeine consumption doesn't significantly impact fertility.
3. Advising complete elimination may be overly restrictive and challenging for patients.
4. Caffeine can affect both male and female fertility, not just male fertility.
5. Emphasizing moderation allows for informed decision-making and realistic lifestyle changes.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Caffeine does not improve ovulation or increase conception chances.
C: Incorrect - Complete elimination of caffeine is unnecessary for successful conception.
D: Incorrect - Caffeine intake can affect both male and female fertility, not limited to male fertility.
The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
- A. in vitro fertilization (IVF).
- B. tubal embryo transfer (TET).
- C. therapeutic insemination (IUI).
- D. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in vitro fertilization (IVF). In IVF, ova are retrieved via laparoscopy, fertilized with sperm in a lab dish, and then the resulting embryo(s) are transferred back to the woman's uterus. This process allows for fertilization to occur outside the body.
Incorrect choices:
B: Tubal embryo transfer (TET) involves transferring embryos directly into the fallopian tubes, not the uterus.
C: Therapeutic insemination (IUI) is the process of injecting sperm directly into the uterus, not involving the removal and fertilization of ova.
D: Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) involves transferring both eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes for fertilization to occur internally, not in a lab dish.
A nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. After assessment of the fetus, the nurse documents the fetal lie. Which term would the nurse use?
- A. flexion
- B. extension
- C. longitudinal
- D. cephalic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fetal lie refers to the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. The primary lies are longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Flexion and extension are terms used to describe fetal attitude, while cephalic is used to describe fetal presentation.
What is the significance of basal body temperature (BBT) tracking in fertility?
- A. BBT predicts the exact time of ovulation.
- B. A rise in BBT confirms that ovulation has occurred.
- C. BBT tracking eliminates the need for ovulation predictor kits.
- D. BBT remains constant throughout the menstrual cycle.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. BBT rise confirms ovulation due to increased progesterone post-ovulation.
2. Progesterone causes a slight increase in BBT, signaling the release of an egg.
3. The shift in BBT helps predict the fertile window for conception.
4. BBT tracking does not predict the exact time of ovulation (A), nor eliminate the need for ovulation predictor kits (C), and BBT does not remain constant throughout the cycle (D).
During infertility counseling, the nurse explains the purpose of an HSG (hysterosalpingogram). What is the best explanation?
- A. It evaluates ovarian function and hormone levels.
- B. It assesses the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes.
- C. It determines the timing of ovulation for insemination.
- D. It monitors fetal development during early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because an HSG is used to visualize the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, helping to diagnose causes of infertility such as tubal blockages or abnormalities. A is incorrect because HSG does not assess ovarian function or hormone levels. C is incorrect as HSG does not determine ovulation timing but rather evaluates tubal patency. D is incorrect because HSG is not used to monitor fetal development.