Nokea
A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Measure urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion
- B. Request a prescription for pain medication
- C. Use an automated BP machine to monitor for hypotension
- D. Provide a quiet environment with low lighting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client reports new onset hearing loss bilaterally after taking a medication with known ototoxic effects. Which type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?
- A. Conductive
- B. Sensorineural
- C. Mixed
- D. Central
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sensorineural. Ototoxic medications can lead to sensorineural hearing loss by affecting the inner ear or auditory nerve. Conductive hearing loss is related to issues in the middle or outer ear, not typically caused by ototoxic medications. Mixed hearing loss is a combination of conductive and sensorineural components. Central hearing loss is related to the central nervous system, not commonly caused by ototoxic medications. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should suspect sensorineural hearing loss.
An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Slow the infusion rate.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
- D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.
Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
- A. Prothrombin time
- B. Bleeding time
- C. Platelet count
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.
During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?
- A. An old friend with eczema came for a visit.
- B. Recently received an influenza immunization.
- C. A grandson and his new dog recently visited.
- D. Corticosteroid cream was applied to eczema.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contact with the grandson's new dog could have introduced new allergens or irritants, exacerbating the eczema symptoms. Choice A is unrelated to the exacerbation of symptoms. Choice B, receiving an influenza immunization, is unlikely to directly cause an exacerbation of eczema symptoms. Choice D, applying corticosteroid cream, is a common treatment for eczema and would not likely be the cause of the exacerbation.
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.