Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
- A. acute renal failure.
- B. deficiency of corticosteroids.
- C. high doses of corticosteroids.
- D. overdose of testosterone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
- A. creatinine levels in the urine are similar to blood levels of creatinine.
- B. sodium and chloride are found in the urine.
- C. urine uric acid levels have the same values as serum levels.
- D. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage, as these are not normally found in urine. A: Creatinine levels should be similar in blood and urine for proper kidney function. B: Sodium and chloride are normal components of urine. C: Uric acid levels can vary in urine and serum. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it signals potential kidney injury.
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
- A. a blood transfusion.
- B. fluid replacement with 0.45% saline.
- C. infusion of an inotropic agent.
- D. an antiemetic.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Infection
- D. Volume overload
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of:
- A. adrenal insufficiency.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: diabetic ketoacidosis. When an insulin pump fails, the patient may experience a sudden decrease in insulin delivery, leading to a potential rise in blood glucose levels. This can trigger diabetic ketoacidosis, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis. Monitoring for signs such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath odor, and rapid breathing is crucial.
Incorrect choices:
A: Adrenal insufficiency is not directly related to insulin pump failure.
C: Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is more common in type 2 diabetes and typically occurs with extreme hyperglycemia, not sudden pump failure.
D: Hypoglycemia is less likely with pump failure due to decreased insulin delivery.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient’s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing
- A. diabetes insipidus.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
- D. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because:
B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output.
C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output.
D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.