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After counseling with an obstetrician about infertility, a couple is advised to undergo testicular sperm aspiration. The nurse is aware that the procedure may be recommended for which infertility?
- A. Blocked fallopian tubes
- B. Unsuccessful vasectomy reversal
- C. Poor cervical mucus production
- D. Diminished sperm motility
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Testicular sperm aspiration is a procedure to retrieve sperm directly from the testicles.
Step 2: If a vasectomy reversal was unsuccessful, it means there is no sperm in the ejaculate due to the blocked vas deferens.
Step 3: Testicular sperm aspiration can be recommended in such cases to retrieve sperm for assisted reproductive techniques.
Summary:
A: Blocked fallopian tubes do not involve male infertility; they affect female fertility.
C: Poor cervical mucus production is a female factor, not male.
D: Diminished sperm motility may require other treatments, not testicular sperm aspiration.
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What is the purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in the first trimester?
- A. to measure the amount of amniotic fluid
- B. to confirm pregnancy
- C. to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus
- D. to assess for potential maternal infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: CVS is done in the first trimester to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus by obtaining a sample of cells from the placenta. This allows for genetic testing to detect conditions such as Down syndrome. Other choices are incorrect as CVS is not used to measure amniotic fluid quantity (A), confirm pregnancy (B), or assess maternal infection (D).
What is an example of a statement by the patient that indicates effective teaching by the nurse about methods to improve fertility?
- A. “Caffeine does not affect my fertility.”
- B. “I should start taking prenatal vitamins to increase my chances of conception.”
- C. “My partner should avoid any exercise while we are trying to conceive to avoid damaging the sperm.”
- D. “Smoking can increase my risk of miscarriage.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the nurse's teaching on fertility. Smoking is known to have negative effects on fertility and can increase the risk of miscarriage. This statement shows that the patient has understood the information provided by the nurse regarding factors that could impact fertility.
A is incorrect because caffeine can actually affect fertility. B is incorrect because while taking prenatal vitamins is beneficial, it does not directly address fertility improvement. C is incorrect as exercise is generally beneficial for fertility and does not necessarily harm sperm.
The nurse is explaining the process of cell division during the preembryonic period to a group of nursing students. Which statement best describes the characteristics of the morula?
- A. Fertilized ovum before mitosis begins
- B. Double layer of cells that becomes the placenta
- C. Flattened, disk-shaped layer of cells within a fluid-filled sphere
- D. Solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a morula is a solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization. During the preembryonic period, the zygote undergoes several rounds of cell division to form a morula, which is a compact cluster of cells. A: is incorrect as a fertilized ovum is a zygote, not a morula. B: is incorrect as the double layer of cells that becomes the placenta is the bilaminar germ disc, not the morula. C: is incorrect as a flattened, disk-shaped layer of cells within a fluid-filled sphere describes the blastocyst, not the morula. Thus, the characteristics of a morula being a solid ball composed of the first cells formed after fertilization make option D the correct choice.
At 16 weeks of gestation a pregnant person states, 'The most dangerous time is the first 3 months, so I shouldn’t have to worry from now on about any dangers to the baby.' What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. There are teratogens with the potential to harm your baby at any time during the pregnancy.
- B. We really won’t be able to say for sure before you have an ultrasound.
- C. You are correct. You are past the critical point.
- D. You don’t seem very concerned about your baby’s welfare.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because teratogens, substances that can harm the developing fetus, can have negative effects on the baby at any point during pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. The nurse's response should educate the pregnant person about the ongoing risks and the importance of avoiding harmful substances throughout pregnancy.
Option B is incorrect because an ultrasound is not used to assess the risk of teratogens. Option C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that the risk is past, which is not true. Option D is incorrect as it is judgmental and does not address the pregnant person's misconception about the risks throughout pregnancy.
You are observing for fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations in a nonstress test (NST) for a woman who is 26 weeks pregnant. The average FHR baseline is 145 to 155 beats per minute (bpm). Within 20 minutes, the FHR accelerated to 165 bpm six times, for 10 to 15 seconds. How should you interpret this information?
- A. Results are nonreassuring, and another 20 minutes of monitoring is needed.
- B. Results are nonreassuring because of too few accelerations within the time period.
- C. Results are reassuring because the FHR accelerated by 10 bpm for 10 seconds.
- D. Results are reassuring because the fetus was inactive during the monitoring.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: FHR accelerations of at least 10 bpm for 10 seconds are considered reassuring.