After receiving a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:
- A. tuberculosis.
- B. herpes.
- C. hepatitis.
- D. syphilis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After receiving a recent tattoo, screening for hepatitis is crucial due to the risk of blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed during the tattooing process. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen and is not directly related to receiving a tattoo. Herpes and syphilis are infections spread through direct contact, such as sexual contact, and are not typically associated with tattooing.
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What is a significant point about Shigella that the nurse should acknowledge upon identifying it in a stool culture?
- A. People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.
- B. Shigella is an airborne infection.
- C. Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.
- D. The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is important for close contacts to be aware and practice good hygiene, testing is not routinely indicated. Shigella is not an airborne infection; it is transmitted through contaminated food or water. A one-way breathing apparatus is not necessary for caring for a patient with Shigella; standard precautions, including handwashing and gloves, are sufficient.
The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?
- A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
- B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
- C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
- D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.
Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
- A. to measure uterine size
- B. to detect multiple pregnancies
- C. to measure renal size
- D. to detect foreign bodies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:
- A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
- B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
- C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
- D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.
A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.