After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
- A. Contain no RNA or DNA
- B. Are capable of independent reproduction
- C. Replicate their genetic material inside host cells
- D. Are killed easily by antimicrobials
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.
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Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
- A. CSF provides immune protection to the brain and spinal cord by serving as a physical barrier.
- B. CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury.
- C. CSF plays a limited role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and brain.
- D. CSF functions primarily as a medium for the transmission of nerve impulses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.
What specific instructions should the nurse provide for proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) in a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with milk due to potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to take the medication at bedtime specifically. Choice D is incorrect as taking alendronate with food can decrease its absorption.
A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Numbness
- C. Diminished vision
- D. Light-colored stools
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.
A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching regarding the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
- C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
- D. The medication may decrease libido.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable, so patients should be informed about this expected time frame. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is a side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment. Choice D is also incorrect as decreased libido is a potential side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment.
A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, pain, and redness in the legs, and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a significant side effect of tamoxifen. Choice C is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen but are not as critical to address as venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss in premenopausal women.