Nokea
Professionalism has historically been difficult to define. Early definitions of professionalism included which of the following characteristics?
- A. Expertise
- B. Empathy
- C. Ethical and moral values
- D. Honesty
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expertise. Professionalism is often associated with possessing a high level of expertise or specialized knowledge in a particular field. This expertise allows professionals to perform their duties effectively and competently. Early definitions of professionalism emphasized the importance of possessing the necessary skills and knowledge to excel in one's profession.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while empathy, ethical and moral values, and honesty are important characteristics of professionalism, they are not the defining factors. Empathy, ethics, and honesty are crucial components of professional behavior, but without expertise, a professional may not be able to effectively fulfill their responsibilities in their chosen field.
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Which theory emphasizes the long-range plan rather than rewards?
- A. Equity theory.
- B. Development.
- C. Goal setting.
- D. Extinction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goal setting theory. This theory emphasizes setting specific, challenging goals to improve performance, focusing on long-range planning rather than immediate rewards. Goals provide direction and motivation, leading to increased effort and persistence. Equity theory (A) focuses on fairness in outcomes and inputs. Development (B) refers to personal growth and learning. Extinction (D) is a behaviorist concept related to the disappearance of a previously learned behavior due to lack of reinforcement.
A postoperative nurse is caring for a client after knee replacement. She discovers the consent was not signed before the surgery. Which of the following charges could be filed?
- A. False imprisonment
- B. Libel
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Battery. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent. In this case, performing the surgery without obtaining informed consent from the client constitutes battery. The lack of signed consent implies the client did not agree to the procedure, making it an unauthorized touching. This is a clear violation of the client's rights and can lead to a charge of battery.
False imprisonment (A) involves restricting someone's freedom of movement unlawfully, which is not applicable here. Libel (B) refers to written defamation, which is not relevant to the situation. Malpractice (D) involves professional negligence in providing healthcare, not obtaining consent before surgery would fall under battery rather than malpractice.
Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?
- A. Administering immunizations
- B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
- C. Routine health screenings
- D. Health education campaigns
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Physical therapy for stroke patients, as it falls under tertiary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of a disease or disability. Physical therapy helps stroke patients regain function and improve quality of life post-onset. A: Administering immunizations is an example of primary prevention, preventing a disease from occurring. C: Routine health screenings are a form of secondary prevention, detecting diseases early to prevent progression. D: Health education campaigns can be both primary (preventing disease occurrence) or secondary prevention (early detection).
Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?
- A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
- B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
- C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
- D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who can diagnose and treat medical conditions independently, under the scope of their licensure. NPs have the authority to prescribe medications, order diagnostic tests, and provide primary care services. This role allows them to manage patient care autonomously, without direct supervision from a physician.
Choice A is incorrect because NPs do not provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician; they work independently. Choice C is incorrect because NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect because while NPs may specialize in specific areas of nursing practice, the defining characteristic of their role is the ability to diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.
A nurse manager is considering the variances of the budget. Fewer monies were spent than expected. What type of variance is this?
- A. Unfavorable variance
- B. Favorable variance
- C. Dependent variance
- D. Independent variance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Favorable variance. This is because spending less money than expected is positive for the budget, indicating efficiency. A favorable variance means actual costs are lower than budgeted, leading to cost savings. In contrast, an unfavorable variance (option A) would occur if more money was spent than anticipated, indicating overspending. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the concept of budget variances and are not commonly used terms in budgeting analysis.