Nokea
All of the following statements regarding scarlet fever are true EXCEPT
- A. rheumatic fever is a possible complication of scarlet fever.
- B. scarlet fever can be treated with antibiotics.
- C. a vaccine is available to protect against scarlet fever.
- D. scarlet fever is caused by an erythrogenic toxin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: No vaccine exists for scarlet fever, which is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes’ erythrogenic toxin and treated with antibiotics. Rheumatic fever is a complication.
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A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?
- A. Document the finding
- B. Report the finding to the doctor
- C. Prepare the client for a C-section
- D. Continue primary care as prescribed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A papular lesion on the perineum during labor could indicate an infectious process (e.g., herpes), so reporting it to the doctor is the most appropriate initial action.
A client with AIDS has impaired nutrition because of diarrhea. Which diet selection by the client would indicate a need for further teaching of foods that can worsen the diarrhea?
- A. Tossed salad
- B. Baked chicken
- C. Broiled fish
- D. Steamed rice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Raw vegetables in a tossed salad can exacerbate diarrhea in AIDS patients. Baked chicken, broiled fish, and steamed rice are easier to digest and less likely to worsen diarrhea.
The nurse is caring for a client who abuses narcotics. The client is exhibiting a respiratory rate of 10 and dilated pupils. Which drug would the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Meperidine (Demerol)
- B. Naloxone (Narcan)
- C. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
- D. Haloperidol (Haldol)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (rate of 10) and dilated pupils suggest opioid overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is the antidote to reverse opioid toxicity.
The nurse is caring for the client following a thyroidectomy when suddenly the client becomes nonresponsive and pale, with a BP of 60 systolic. The nurse's initial action should be to:
- A. Lower the head of the bed
- B. Increase the infusion of normal saline
- C. Administer atropine IV
- D. Obtain a crash cart
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increasing normal saline infusion addresses hypovolemic shock, likely due to post-thyroidectomy hemorrhage, as the priority action.
A 52-year-old female had a hysterectomy 3 days ago and is recovering on the post-op floor. She is scheduled for an oral pain medication every 4 hours. She received her scheduled dose 1 hour ago but pushes the call light and complains of unrelenting and severe pain. The nurse should first
- A. perform a full head-to-toe assessment on the client.
- B. work with the client on alternate methods to relieve pain, such as guided imagery.
- C. explain to the client it is not time to administer more pain medication.
- D. call the physician and report the current plan for pain management is not working.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe, unrelenting pain post-hysterectomy suggests a complication (e.g., bleeding, infection). Notifying the physician for evaluation is the priority.