Nokea
All of the statements about Rotaviruses are correct EXCEPT
- A. non-specific antiviral therapy is available
- B. Rotaviruses are ubiquitous worldwide
- C. Rotaviruses are a major cause of meningitis
- D. large amounts of viruses are released in fecal matter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rotaviruses are not a major cause of meningitis; they primarily cause gastroenteritis. This is because Rotaviruses infect the gastrointestinal tract, not the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific antiviral therapy for Rotaviruses. Choice B is correct as Rotaviruses are indeed widespread globally. Choice D is correct as Rotaviruses are shed in large amounts in feces, contributing to their ability to spread easily.
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When examining a patient presumptively diagnosed with food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he ate the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?
- A. Homemade canned meat
- B. Custard pastry from a private bakery
- C. Sour cream from a local dairy factory
- D. Strawberries from a suburban vegetable garden
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which thrives in low-oxygen environments like improperly canned food. Homemade canned meat poses a higher risk of contamination as it may not have been processed correctly, allowing the bacteria to grow and produce toxins. Custard pastry, sour cream, and strawberries are less likely to cause botulism as they are not typically associated with the bacteria unless improperly handled or stored. Homemade canned meat is the most probable cause based on the characteristic symptoms of botulism and the conditions that favor the growth of Clostridium botulinum in canned food.
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
- A. Malaria
- B. Infectious mononucleosis
- C. Sepsis
- D. Typhoid fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Which of the following bacteria causes the disease diphtheria?
- A. Bordetella pertussis
- B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes diphtheria by inhibiting protein synthesis, leading to the formation of a pseudomembrane in the throat. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat, and Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the only bacterium among the choices known to cause diphtheria due to its specific toxin production.
Penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains must be detected..
- A. After antibiotic therapy is begun
- B. Before antibiotic therapy is begun
- C. During the antibiotic therapy
- D. No importance for the time of detection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Before antibiotic therapy is begun. Detecting penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains before antibiotic therapy is crucial to ensure proper treatment. If detected after therapy (choice A), it may lead to treatment failure. Detection during therapy (choice C) may result in delayed or ineffective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as early detection is essential for successful management.
Antigenic variation is used by bacteria to:
- A. evade host immune responses
- B. increase antibiotic susceptibility
- C. increase peptidoglycan synthesis
- D. enhance motility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: evade host immune responses. Antigenic variation allows bacteria to change their surface antigens, making it difficult for the host immune system to recognize and attack them effectively. This enhances the bacteria's ability to evade immune responses and establish infection.
B: Increase antibiotic susceptibility is incorrect because antigenic variation does not directly impact the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics.
C: Increase peptidoglycan synthesis is incorrect because antigenic variation is not related to the synthesis of peptidoglycan, which is a major component of the bacterial cell wall.
D: Enhance motility is incorrect because antigenic variation does not directly affect the motility of bacteria.
In summary, antigenic variation in bacteria primarily serves to help them evade host immune responses, making option A the correct answer.