Nokea
Allergy to penicillin is an example of:
- A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
- B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
- D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct:
1. Penicillin allergy involves IgE antibodies binding to penicillin.
2. This triggers mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine.
3. Histamine causes allergic symptoms like rash, swelling.
4. This immune response characterizes Type I hypersensitivity reactions.
Summary of other choices:
B: Type II reactions involve antibody-mediated cell destruction, not seen in penicillin allergy.
C: Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition, not typical in penicillin allergy.
D: Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions, not immediate like penicillin allergy.
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Which one is not true for the adaptive immunity:
- A. Is mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes
- B. Develops immune memory
- C. Has a specificity
- D. Evolutionary newer in comparison to the innate immunity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because adaptive immunity is not mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes. Adaptive immunity is a systemic response that involves specific immune cells and antibodies targeting specific pathogens. It develops immune memory (B), meaning it can recognize and respond faster upon re-exposure to the same pathogen. Adaptive immunity also has specificity (C), as it can target specific antigens. Lastly, adaptive immunity is not evolutionarily newer in comparison to innate immunity (D), as both systems have co-evolved to provide comprehensive protection against pathogens.
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother, who complains of low-grade fever, chronic cough and night sweats in her child. She describes the cough as productive, producing white sputum that is sometimes streaked with blood. She also says that her son has lost some weight in the last month. His vital signs include blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, heart rate of 110/min., respiratory rate of 18/min. and temperature of 36,6°C. On physical examination, the patient is ill looking. Pulmonary auscultation reveals some fine crackles in the right upper lobe. The pediatrician suspects an active infection and performs Mantoux test. Intradermal injection of which of the following substances has been most likely used by pediatrician for screening test in this clinical case?
- A. Tuberculin
- B. Measles
- C. Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td)
- D. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. In this clinical scenario, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis, including chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is used to screen for tuberculosis. Tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) derived from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is injected intradermally. The test elicits a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals who have been exposed to the organism in the past. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to tuberculosis and does not differentiate between active infection and prior exposure.
Explanation for other choices:
B: Measles - Measles is a viral infection that presents with a characteristic rash and fever, not consistent with the symptoms described in the case.
C: Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td) - Td vaccine is not used for tuberculosis screening and does not elicit
A 42-year-old woman has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. Microscopy revealed flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane and pear-shaped structure. What organism was found?
- A. Trichomonas vaginalis
- B. Trypanosoma gambiense
- C. Leishmania donovani
- D. Lamblia intestinalis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by foamy purulent vaginal discharges. Microscopy of vaginal discharge showing flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane and pear-shaped structure is indicative of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness and is transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies. Lamblia intestinalis causes giardiasis and is characterized by diarrhea and flatulence.
Prophylaxis of smallpox and revaccination is performed:
- A. Every year after the first vaccine
- B. Every second year
- C. Every three years
- D. No revaccination is needed, just the initial vaccine is enough
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because smallpox vaccination provides long-lasting immunity, often for a lifetime. Revaccination is not necessary as the initial vaccine confers sufficient protection. Choice A is incorrect because yearly revaccination is unnecessary and excessive. Choice B and C are also incorrect as there is no need for revaccination every second or third year. The key is to understand that smallpox vaccination typically provides lifelong immunity, making ongoing revaccination unnecessary.
Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?
- A. Virus Parotitidis
- B. Rubella virus
- C. Influenza A
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.