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A nurse caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Vulva Lesions
- D. Malodorous Discharge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. In pregnant individuals, trichomoniasis can result in adverse pregnancy outcomes such as preterm birth and low birth weight. A common symptom of trichomoniasis is a frothy, yellow-green, malodorous vaginal discharge. Therefore, in this client scenario, the nurse should expect to find a malodorous discharge as a result of trichomoniasis. The other options presented are not typically associated with trichomoniasis.
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A laboring patient's obstetrician suggested an amniotomy as a method for inducing the labor. Which assessment must be made before the amniotomy is performed?
- A. Fetal presentation, position, and station
- B. Estimate fetal birth weight
- C. Maternal temperature, BP, pulse
- D. Biparietal diameter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Before performing an amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes), it is essential to assess the fetal presentation, position, and station. This assessment helps ensure that the procedure is performed safely without causing harm to the baby. Knowing the fetal presentation (such as breech, transverse, or vertex), position (occiput anterior, occiput posterior, etc.), and station (how far down the baby's head is in the pelvis) allows the obstetrician to determine the best approach and technique for the amniotomy. It also helps in reducing the risk of complications during labor induction and delivery. Therefore, this assessment is crucial in ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the baby during the labor process.
A nurse is admitting a client who has a diagnosis of preterm labor. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Prostaglandin E2
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Magnesium sulfate
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Prostaglandin E2: Prostaglandin E2 is used to manage preterm labor by helping to ripen the cervix and promote contractions.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is 34 weeks ges- dividing?
- A. Trophoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the fetal monitor tracing are a priority for the nurse to placenta
- B. Embryoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the that apply. embryo
- C. Baseline FHR 140, accelerations, late decelerations,
- D. Morula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of the question, the nurse is monitoring a 34-week gestation client. At 34 weeks, the trophoblast or inner cell mass has already developed into the placenta, which is formed earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, choice A is the most relevant option in this scenario. Trophoblast is critical for implantation and the formation of the placenta, which plays a vital role in supporting the developing fetus by providing oxygen and nutrients. Understanding the different stages of fetal development can help the nurse provide optimal care and monitor for any potential issues that may arise during pregnancy.
A client in the third trimester reports severe itching without rash. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Cholestasis of pregnancy.
- B. Preeclampsia.
- C. Gestational diabetes.
- D. Fungal infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe itching in pregnancy without a rash is commonly associated with cholestasis of pregnancy.
A patient who uses a diaphragm as contraception asks if they need to use a backup method. What should the nurse respond?
- A. No, the diaphragm is effective on its own and does not require a backup method.
- B. Yes, a diaphragm is effective only when used with spermicide, so a backup method is advised.
- C. Yes, a diaphragm should always be used with a condom for additional protection.
- D. No, but the diaphragm should be replaced every 6 months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The diaphragm should be used with spermicide for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm is effective, spermicide enhances its performance and ensures greater protection. Choice C is unnecessary, as the diaphragm alone with spermicide is sufficient. Choice D is incorrect because while regular replacement is recommended, it does not require a backup method.