Nokea
Amitriptyline, an antidepressant is the drug of choice in treating Bulimia. What is a COMMON side effect of this drug?
- A. Anticholinergic effects
- B. Cholinergic effects
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, being a tricyclic antidepressant, commonly causes anticholinergic side effects. These effects include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Anticholinergic effects are due to the drug's inhibition of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to the symptoms mentioned above. These side effects can be bothersome for patients taking amitriptyline, but they are generally manageable and often improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. In the case of bulimia treatment, the benefits of using amitriptyline to address the underlying psychological issues often outweigh the side effects.
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A patient presents with multiple, flesh-colored, papular lesions with a central dell on the face and trunk. The lesions have a tendency to bleed upon minor trauma and have been increasing in number over time. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Seborrheic keratosis
- D. Actinic keratosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described in the question is classic for basal cell carcinoma (BCC). BCC typically presents as multiple, flesh-colored, papular lesions with a central dell (resembling a pearl-like appearance) on sun-exposed areas such as the face and trunk. These lesions are known to bleed easily upon minor trauma and tend to increase in number over time. BCC is the most common type of skin cancer, often triggered by sun exposure. On the other hand, seborrheic keratosis (choice C) presents as benign, pigmented, stuck-on, waxy, or warty lesions with a rough surface, true bumpy appearance. Squamous cell carcinoma (choice B) usually presents as a scaly, erythematous, rapidly growing nodule, ulcer, or plaque. Actinic keratosis (choice D) presents as rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas that can progress to
A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which nursing intervention is the priority for managing the patient's respiratory status?
- A. Administering bronchodilators
- B. Positioning the patient in high Fowler's position
- C. Performing chest physiotherapy
- D. Administering oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority nursing intervention for managing a patient with COPD experiencing respiratory distress. In COPD, the patient's lungs are less efficient at oxygen exchange, leading to hypoxemia. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation in the body and alleviates respiratory distress in these patients. Positioning the patient in high Fowler's position can also help improve lung expansion, but providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence in addressing the underlying hypoxemia. Administering bronchodilators and performing chest physiotherapy aim to manage airway obstruction and promote airway clearance, but ensuring the patient has adequate oxygenation is crucial in the immediate management of respiratory distress in COPD.
A retired nurse stops to help in an emergency at the scene of an accident, if the injured party files suit and the, the nurse would probably be covered by
- A. Her homeowner's insurance
- B. National Care Act
- C. Her automobile insurance
- D. The Good Samaritan Law
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Good Samaritan Law offers legal protection to individuals who voluntarily provide assistance at the scene of an emergency or accident. These laws vary by state, but generally, they grant immunity from civil liability for the individual providing aid as long as they act in good faith and without expectation of compensation. In this case, the retired nurse who stopped to help in the emergency at the scene of an accident would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Law, protecting her from being sued by the injured party for any unintended consequences of her efforts to assist.
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with spironolactone therapy?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the significant side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the bloodstream. Spironolactone works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates potassium and sodium balance in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone reduces potassium excretion in the urine, leading to potential accumulation of potassium in the body.
Sexual dysfunctions 1ike impotence, erectile dysfunction, and lack of libido are likely possibilities in what, prostatic surgery?
- A. Suprapubic prostatectomy
- B. Transurethral resection of the prostate
- C. Laparoscopic prostatectomy
- D. Perineal prostatectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sexual dysfunctions like impotence, erectile dysfunction, and lack of libido are common complications following prostatic surgery. Among the options provided, transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is associated with a higher risk of these sexual dysfunctions. This is because during TURP, the surgical procedure may damage nerves and blood vessels that are crucial for sexual function, leading to impotence, erectile dysfunction, and decreased libido postoperatively.