Nokea
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- B. Antihistamines.
- C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- D. Antibiotics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
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When developing a program to support caregivers of elderly patients, which topic should be prioritized in the first session?
- A. Managing medication schedules
- B. Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout
- C. Effective communication with healthcare providers
- D. Navigating insurance and financial issues
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is the most critical topic to prioritize in the first session. Caregiver burnout can have detrimental effects on both the caregiver and the elderly patient's well-being. By addressing this issue early on, caregivers can learn to identify the signs of burnout, take necessary steps to prevent it, and ensure they can continue providing effective care for their loved ones. Managing medication schedules, effective communication with healthcare providers, and navigating insurance and financial issues are also important aspects to cover in the program. However, recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is essential for the overall health and quality of care provided by the caregivers.
The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Spider angiomas.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.
Because this year's demographics reflect that a large percentage of the population is less than 19 years of age, a community group proposes building a new well-child clinic. Which question indicates that the nurse understands the potential gaps in this data?
- A. What percentage of the population was under 19 years of age in each of the previous 5 years?
- B. What is the distribution of males to females within this population?
- C. How can the income level of the families within the community be determined?
- D. How will the large percentage under 19 years affect the community dependency ratio?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer because understanding the percentage of the population under 19 years of age in each of the previous five years helps to determine if the high percentage of youth is a consistent trend or a recent change. This information is crucial for assessing the need for a new well-child clinic. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the gaps in the data related to the age distribution trend over time, which is essential for making an informed decision about the necessity of the proposed clinic.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?
- A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.