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An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Describes life as without purpose.
- B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
- C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
- D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
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An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:
- A. Demonstrate confidence in the client's ability to deal with stressors
- B. Provide hope and reassurance that the problems will resolve themselves
- C. Display an attitude of detachment, confrontation, and efficiency
- D. Provide authority, action, and participation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.
A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
- B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.
A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Determine if the client has a weapon available for use.
- B. Inform the health care provider of the threat to harm a co-worker.
- C. Notify security of the client's intention to harm a co-worker.
- D. Have the employee escorted to a mental health facility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is
- A. regressing to an earlier behavior pattern.
- B. sublimating her anger.
- C. projecting her feelings onto the nurse.
- D. suppressing her fear.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.
A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
- B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
- C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
- D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.