Nokea
An adult client is being treated for genital herpes with acyclovir (Zovirax) tablets. Which statement she makes indicates that she understands her therapy?
- A. It is safe now to have sexual relations.
- B. I will stay home from work until the blisters are gone.
- C. This medicine will cure the herpes infection.
- D. If the blisters come back, I will start taking the pills immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir reduces symptoms and recurrence of herpes but does not cure it. Starting treatment at recurrence is appropriate.
You may also like to solve these questions
The elderly client is admitted to the emergency department from a long-term care facility. The client has multiple ecchymotic areas on the body. The client is receiving digoxin, a cardiac glycoside; Lasix, a loop diuretic; Coumadin, an anticoagulant; and Xanax, an antianxiety medication. Which order should the nurse request from the health-care provider?
- A. A STAT serum potassium level.
- B. An order to admit to the hospital for observation.
- C. An order to administer Valium intravenous push.
- D. A STAT international normalized ratio (INR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis with Coumadin suggests bleeding risk; STAT INR assesses anticoagulation status, guiding reversal if needed. Potassium, admission, or Valium are less urgent.
A 68-year-old client was admitted with congestive heart failure, has been digitalized, and is now taking a maintenance dose of digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The client is to be discharged soon. Which assessment is of most immediate concern to the nurse?
- A. The client's apical pulse is 66.
- B. The client says that he is nauseous and has no appetite.
- C. The client says that he will take his pill every morning.
- D. The client has lost 8 lb since his admission one week ago.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and anorexia are signs of digoxin toxicity, requiring immediate attention to prevent serious complications.
Keflex 250 mg PO q6h is ordered for an adult. The nurse notes that the client's history indicates that she has an allergy to penicillin. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse?
- A. Notify the physician
- B. Observe the client carefully after giving the medication
- C. Administer the Keflex IV instead of PO
- D. Ask the client to describe the reaction that she had to penicillin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is often a cross-allergy between penicillin and cephalosporins like Keflex. The nurse should first determine the type of reaction to assess if Keflex is safe.
The client admitted with pneumonia is taking Imuran, an immunosuppressive agent. Which question should the nurse ask the client regarding this medication?
- A. Do you know this medication has to be tapered off when discontinued?
- B. Have you been exposed to viral hepatitis B or C recently?
- C. Why are you taking this medication, and how long have you taken it?
- D. Do you have a lot of allergies or sensitivities to different medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Imuran (azathioprine) use and duration clarify indication (e.g., autoimmune) and infection risk, critical with pneumonia. Tapering, hepatitis, or allergies are less immediate.
The client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is receiving vasopressin intranasally. Which assessment data indicate the medication is effective?
- A. The client reports being able to breathe through the nose.
- B. The client complains of being thirsty all the time.
- C. The client has a blood glucose of 99 mg/dL.
- D. The client is urinating every three (3) to four (4) hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vasopressin reduces polyuria in diabetes insipidus; urination every 3–4 hours indicates effectiveness. Nasal breathing, thirst, or glucose are unrelated.