An adult is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD]. The nurse notes that he has neck vein distention and slight peripheral edema. The practical nurse notifies the registered nurse and continues frequent assessments because the nurse knows that these signs signal the onset of which of the following?
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Cor pulmonale
- C. Cardiogenic shock
- D. Left-sided heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention and peripheral edema indicate right-sided heart failure, or cor pulmonale, caused by pulmonary hypertension in COPD.
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Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing pneumonia? Select-all-that-apply:
- A. A 53 year old female recovering from abdominal surgery.
- B. A 69 year old patient who recently received the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine.
- C. A 42 year old male with COPD and is on continuous oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. A 8 month old with RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) infection.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Patients recovering from surgery are at risk due to immobility and impaired cough reflex, those with COPD have chronic lung disease increasing susceptibility, and infants with RSV are prone to secondary bacterial pneumonia. The vaccinated patient has reduced risk due to immunity.
The nurse in a long-term care facility is planning the care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) feeding tube used for bolus feedings. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Inspect the insertion line at the naris prior to instilling formula.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed (HOB) after feeding the client.
- C. Place the client in the Sims position following each feeding.
- D. Change the dressing on the feeding tube every three (3) days.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating HOB post-feeding (B) prevents aspiration in PEG clients. Naris inspection (A) applies to NG tubes, Sims position (C) is not standard, and dressings (D) are changed PRN.
When the nurse obtains the nasal swab, which action is most accurate?
- A. The nurse dons sterile gloves before obtaining the specimen.
- B. The swab is placed in the anterior portion of the nare and swept superiorly.
- C. The client is asked to blow the nose before the specimen is collected.
- D. The nurse uses separate applicators for each nare.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using separate applicators for each nare prevents cross-contamination and ensures an accurate sample for MRSA screening.
Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate the health-care provider ordering to rule out the diagnosis of asthma in clients diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. A bronchoscopy.
- B. An immunoglobulin E.
- C. An arterial blood gas.
- D. A bronchodilator reversibility test.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A bronchodilator reversibility test differentiates asthma from COPD by assessing whether airway obstruction is reversible. In asthma, lung function (e.g., FEV1) improves significantly post-bronchodilator, while COPD shows minimal improvement. Bronchoscopy (A) is invasive and not specific for this differentiation. Immunoglobulin E (B) is relevant for allergies, not distinguishing asthma from COPD. Arterial blood gases (C) assess oxygenation but do not differentiate these conditions.
The client is getting out of bed and becomes very anxious and has a feeling of impending doom. The nurse thinks the client may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen 10 L via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position.
- C. Obtain a STAT pulse oximeter reading.
- D. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High Fowler’s position (B) improves breathing in suspected PE, a priority. Oxygen (A), SpO2 (C), and lung sounds (D) follow to support and assess.
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